Assessment- Diagnosis-Planning-Implementation-Evaluation is the correct nursing process.
What is nursing process?Assessment: The assessment phase is the first step in the nursing process. The nurse gathers and arranges patient-related data at this stage. Diagnosis: One of the most crucial stages in the nursing process is this one. When making a diagnosis, which can be difficult at times, it must take into account all of the patient's external circumstances (environmental, socioeconomic, physiological, etc.).planning: The third step in the nursing process is planning. It gives nursing interventions guidance.Implementation: Nursing interventions are the steps a nurse takes to carry out their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities meant to increase the patient's comfort and health.Evaluation: The evaluation phase is the last step in the nursing process. It occurs after the interventions to determine whether the objectives were achieved. The nurse will decide how to assess the efficacy of the goals and interventions during the evaluation phase.Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here, The complete question.
Question: The nursing process is a systematic, problem-solving approach that provides the framework for nursing practice in the United States and Canada. Put the five steps of the nursing process in order. (Select all that apply.)
a. Diagnosis
b. Implementation
c. Planning
d. Assessment
e. Evaluation
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a coal miner suffers from constipation
A coal miner experiences constipation. The correct answer is 'col'. Col is the mnemonic for colon.
The mnemonic "COL" stands for colon, which is the part of the digestive system responsible for the elimination of feces. Constipation is a common condition that can occur when the colon is not able to properly move feces through the digestive system. This can be caused by a variety of factors, such as a lack of fiber in the diet, dehydration, or certain medications. In the context of a coal miner, the cause of constipation may be related to the conditions of their work environment, such as exposure to dust and pollutants or a lack of physical activity.
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A good nursing decision maker is one who:
A good nursing decision-maker is one who uses colorful models to guide the process grounded on the circumstances of the situation.
The first step is to make sure that the nanny director has an accurate understanding of the problem of conflict. The quality of the outgrowth of resolving a problem depends on proper recognition and identification of the problem or issue.
The nanny leader is working on resolving conflicts between platoon members. Which action indicates that the nanny is involved in the formative conflict? Making use of authentic or genuine communication may help in resolving conflict between platoon members.
The mortal relations proposition is the most useful to nanny directors because it stresses the significance of the existent as well as the group relationship. It emphasizes the part of psychology and sociology in the understanding of an individual as well as group geste in an association.
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A nurse is caring for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate who has continuous bladder irrigation in place. The client's urinary output has changed from pink to bright red with clots. What is the priority nursing intervention?
The sudden change in the color and consistency of the urinary output could indicate a possible complication of the surgery.
Bladder irrigation helps to remove and also thr prevent blood clots in the bladder. A blood clot prevents urine from flowing through the catheter. Urine accumulates in the bladder, and the pain increases as the bladder fills. Bladder irrigation may be necessary after bladder or prostate surgery. CBI should not be painful. However, if a person experiences pain, they should notify a medical professional immediately. Pain may indicate that the catheter needs to be repositioned or that fluids that irritate the bladder are not draining, usually due to blood clots. However, complaints may arise.
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A patient's urinalysis shows her urine is pH 4.5. Will the kidneys be able to compensate any further her acidosis
Yes, The kidneys will be suitable to compensate for the acidosis caused by a pH of4.5,
Though not to the same degree as when the pH is advanced. The feathers are suitable to excrete redundant acid or base in the urine in order to maintain the pH balance in the body. When the pH is lower, the feathers aren't suitable to excrete as important acid, and so the body won't be suitable to fully relieve itself of the redundant acid. This means that the acidosis will still be present, indeed if the feathers are suitable to compensate. In order to completely correct the acidosis, other treatments, similar as sodium bicarbonate, may be necessary in order to bring the pH back to a normal position. A case with a pH of4.5 should be covered nearly for signs of acidosis and other complications.
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The _____ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.A. AutonomicB. PeripheralC. AfferentD. EfferentE. Central
The central nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
The central nervous system (CNS) is the portion of the nervous system that includes the brain and spinal cord. Because the brain integrates incoming information and coordinates and regulates the activity of all parts of the bodies of bilaterally symmetric and triploblastic animals—that is, all multicellular organisms save sponges and diploblasts—it is dubbed the CNS. It is a structure made up of nerve tissue that runs from the rostral (nose end) to the caudal (tail end) axis of the body, with an expanded part at the rostral end that is a brain. A genuine brain is found only in arthropods, cephalopods, and vertebrates (precursor structures exist in onychophorans, gastropods and lancelets).
The meninges surround the brain and spinal cord in vertebrates. The meninges act as a barrier to substances dissolved in the blood, shielding the brain from the majority of neurotoxins contained in food. The brain and spinal cord are bathed in cerebral spinal fluid within the meninges, which substitutes the body fluid present outside the cells of all bilateral mammals.
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A patient's urine output was 800 mL/hr. Following a treatment, the patient's urine output increased to 1.200 mL/hr. What is the percent change in urine output? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number.)
25% percent change in urine output.
800 to 000 milliliters of pee per day are within the typical range for 24-hour urine volume ( with a normal fluid input of about 2 liters per day). Adults typically pass between three mugs and three quarts (700 milliliters and three liters) of urine every day.
The condition is known as polyuria and may be present in individuals who urinate in excessive amounts. It's not necessarily a symptom of illness when someone has frequent urinating. Most individuals typically urinate 6 to 7 times per day throughout the course of a 24-hour period.
If a person uses the restroom 4 times per day and is healthy and content with this frequently, this can also be considered normal. Low urine outputs are referred to as oliguria in medicine.
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After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
O determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
O identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
O look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
O find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
To identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. This is the secondary assessment of a patient which will not focus on the main injury but on the effects of the injury on other body parts.
A lab test is the first step. A patient will provide a sample of their DNA, in this case body fluids. It could be saliva, mucus, urine and usually a blood sample. Afterwards, it is mixed with a special substance that reacts chemically with the blood to show the presence of disease or none thereof.
The process looks from head to toe of an injured person identifying all injuries. Mostly used when the signs and symptoms were not clear during the primary assessment.
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The average adult body contains approximately ________ liters of blood.
The average adult body contains approximately 5 liters of blood.
Blood is a bodily fluid in the circulatory system of humans and other animals that moves metabolic waste products away from cells while delivering vital chemicals such as nutrition and oxygen to them. Blood in the circulatory system is also known as peripheral blood, as are the blood cells it contains.
Blood is made up of blood cells suspended in plasma. Plasma, which makes up 55% of blood fluid, is largely water (92% by volume) and contains proteins, carbohydrates, mineral ions, hormones, carbon dioxide (plasma is the primary medium for excretory product transfer), and blood cells themselves. The most abundant protein in plasma is albumin, which maintains blood colloidal osmotic pressure.
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two ways that hostility can affect the body are through stress on the heart and
Answer: cardiovascular reactivity
Explanation:
According to Burns, the results suggest that hostility may operate in concert with dimensions of job stress to affect cardiovascular reactivity, and presumably CHD. Various theories have been proposed to explain the development of hostility, including parental behavior that is overly strict, critical and demanding of conformity.
What code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant? a Z48.22 b Z48.22, Z94.0 C. N18.6 d. Z94.0'
a Z48.22 code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant.
How do aftercare codes work?When the original course of treatment for an illness has been completed but the patient still needs ongoing care for the duration of the healing or recovery process or for the long-term effects of the condition, aftercare visit codes are provided.
For patients getting ongoing treatment during the healing process or for the long-term effects of a condition, the aftercare codes (Z47-Z48) are utilised. Reminder: For following encounters, code to the individual injury with the seventh character rather than using these codes with the injury codes.
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What is cetirizine hydrochloride and pseudoephedrine hydrochloride?
Cetirizine hydrochloride and pseudoephedrine hydrochloride are drugs for allergies, usually used to treat colds due to allergies.
What is cetirizine?Cetirizine is an antihistamine drug. This drug works by blocking histamine, which is a compound that increases in the number and causes allergic symptoms when the body is exposed to an allergen (allergy-triggering substance). In addition, cetirizine can also be used to treat rhinitis or cold cough symptoms that are not caused by allergies.
Please note that cetirizine cannot cure allergies. The best way to prevent an allergic reaction is to avoid exposure to allergens. Cetirizine is generally only used when symptoms are present and can be discontinued after symptoms improve or disappear.
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A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
This tool is used in conjunction with a stiff extrication collar, a blanket roll, or a cervical/head immobilization device. A stable wounded patient is transferred from a vehicle onto a long backboard using a short backboard. The majority of ambulance services have switched to more contemporary vest-style equipment, including a KED.
Short spine boards, also known as CPR boards, are suitable for usage in small areas (such as automobiles, confined rooms in homes, etc.) but come at the expense of not supporting the patient's legs. They allow the patient's torso to be secured and immobilized with the utilization of considerably less space. Only experts who have received training and are familiar with using the short spine board should be involved in its usage, as is the case with other EMS equipment. Short spine boards are rarely used, and they are typically only used until it is safe and practicable to convert to a long spine board. On soft surfaces like mattresses, short spine boards are frequently utilized as a support.
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An orthodontic tooth positioner is not used:
Orthodontic tooth positioners are not used in clients who do not have a change in tooth structure.
What is orthodontics?Orthodontics is a specialist that deals with the process of correcting or correcting the position of teeth that are not neat, teeth that are too advanced, and other matters related to the tooth structure with the aim of restoring the function of the teeth as well as making the appearance more attractive.
There are several types of braces that can be used for orthodontic treatment, adjusted to the case and patient's needs, such as metal braces, ceramic braces, self-ligating braces, and lingual braces.
Orthodontic tooth movement is a combination of bone resorption and deposition on the compression and tensile sites, both of which will influence the cellular response.
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A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene a) may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot. b) stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis. c) only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis. d) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle. e) promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.
d) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene.
What distinguishes a proto-oncogene from an oncogene?Genes called proto-oncogenes generally aid in cell growth and division to produce new cells or to maintain the viability of existing cells. A proto-oncogene can get switched on (activated) when it shouldn't be when there are too many copies of it, at which time it becomes an oncogene and is known as such.
Tumor suppressor genes produce loss-of-function effects, whereas oncogenes are those whose changes result in gain-of-function consequences, which contribute to the malignant phenotype.
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During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing:
During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.
Fingertips should be used for palpation, and the intensity of the pulse should be graded from 0 to 4 +: 0 indicates that there is no palpable pulse; 1 + that there is a faint but detectable pulse; 2 + that there is a slightly reduced pulse than normal; 3 + that there is a normal pulse; and 4 + that there is a bounding pulse.
When there is a rupture in the skin, external bleeding occurs. Blood leaving the body naturally through an orifice, such as the mouth, might also indicate blood loss from injured tissue.
Acne, clogged skin follicles that produce oil, germs, and dead tissue buildup in your pores are a few of the most prevalent skin conditions. Alopecia areata, which causes patchy hair loss. Eczema caused by allergies, dry, itchy skin.
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which of the following is true about the factors that contribute to autism spectrum disorder (asd)?
a sibling who is autistic. possessing a disorder caused by a chromosome or genetic variation, such as tuberous sclerosis or fragile X syndrome. giving birth to a baby with problems. birth parents who are older
What among the following describes an ASD characteristic?Communication and social interaction issues, as well as repetitive or limited actions or interests, are common in people with ASD. Additionally, people with ASD could move, pay attention, or learn in unusual ways.
The Indian Scale for Identification of Autism (ISAA) is an instrument that has been standardised and has high psychometric qualities. When used to diagnose people with autism, it is a trustworthy and reliable tool.
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which of the following nurisng instructions relate to photosensitivty is important for the client reeiving sulfanomide
Use a high SPF sunblock which decreases the risk of photosensitive reactions is the nursing instructions related to photosensitivity important for the client receiving sulfonamide.
Sulfonamide is a functional group that serves as the foundation for various medication classes known as sulphonamides, sulfa medicines, or sulpha pharmaceuticals. The first antibacterial sulfonamides are sulfonamide-containing synthetic antimicrobial agents.
Sulfanilamide, a streptococcal infection treatment, has been proved to have remarkable curative results and had been used safely in tablet and powder form for some time. Sulfonamides are synthetic bacteriostatic antibiotics with a broad spectrum of activity against most gram-positive and many gram-negative bacteria. Many strains of a single species, however, may be resistant. Sulfonamides include sulfadiazine, sulfamethizole (Thiosulfil Forte), sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol), sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin), and numerous high-strength combinations of three sulfonamides.
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developer strength can be checked by using:
The developer strength can be checked by both-using a reference radiographs and using a step wedge radiograph.
Reference radiographs are the images produced by radiation, usually by x-rays. These radiations recorded on a radiosensitive surface, such as photographic film, or by photographing a fluoroscopic image. These are also called radiogram, shadowgraph, skiagram, skiagraph.
A step wedge (or step wedge) is basically used for quality control in radiology, and photography. It help in assessing the impact that the exposure parameters can have on the radiographic image.
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How do i get my dad to come back with the milk
Answer:
By telling him to come back from the store with milk.
Explanation:
?
A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway?
How to manage his airway when having a head injury and bleeding is to position your head a little higher and then give rescue breaths.
What is head trauma?Head injury (head trauma) is a problem in the structure of the head due to a collision that has the potential to cause disturbances in brain function. These problems can be minor injuries, bruises on the scalp, swelling, bleeding, skull fractures, or concussion.
Head injuries occur when there is a hard impact, especially one that directly hits the head. The severity of the injury will depend on the mechanism and the severity of the impact experienced by the sufferer.
If an accident occurs and results in a head injury, it is necessary to ensure the person's airway. how to manage his airway is to position the head slightly higher and give rescue breaths.
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If you consume gram of each of the following: which will yield the most ATP O glucose
O protein O fat
O starch
If you consume gram of each of the following: protein will yield the most ATP
What is the ATP yield that is highest?The highest potential production of ATP for the aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule is 38. Explain how this number is derived in terms of substrate-level phosphorylation, oxidative phosphorylation, and the component processes involved.
The most effective method of ATP production is aerobic metabolism, which generates 18 times more ATP per molecule of glucose than anaerobic metabolism. Although carbohydrates are the main source of ATP in aerobic metabolism, fatty acids and protein may also be utilised as ATP fuel.
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exemption from immunizations for reasons of conscience
Exemption from immunizations for reasons of conscience refers to the legal provision that allows individuals to opt out of receiving vaccinations for religious or personal beliefs.
This exemption may vary depending on the country's or state's laws. In some cases, the exemption may only be allowed for religious reasons, while in others it may also be allowed for personal or philosophical reasons. However, it's important to note that exemptions from vaccinations can pose a risk to public health by decreasing the overall herd immunity, making it easier for diseases to spread. Some studies have shown that exemptions can contribute to the outbreak of vaccine-preventable diseases.
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The Gram stain would not be an effective tool to assist in the identification of this pathogen:
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Yesrsinia pestis
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Shigella dysentariae
F. the identification of all of the above can by aided by performing a Gram stain
The Gram stain would not be an effective tool to assist in the identification of this pathogen: D. Clostridium tetani
What are the two potential limits of Gram staining?Remember the diagnostic limits of sputum Gram's stain and culture, such as the inability to see atypical organisms, contamination by oral flora, and the difficulties some patients have in providing appropriate specimens.
Gram staining differentiates between Gram positive and Gram negative groups by colouring cells red or violet. Gram-positive bacteria stain violet because their cell walls include a thick coating of peptidoglycan, which preserves the crystal violet with which they are stained.
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25. The nurse observes a dient prepare a meal in the Kitchen of a rehabilitation faciley prior to
discharge. Which behaviors indicate the dient understands how to maintain balance saltel
(Select all that apply)
ngs a heavy can dose to body before Witing
b. Locks knees while preparing food on the counter
C. Widens stance while working near the sink
6.
Bends from the waist to pick trash off the floor
Leans forward to pull a pan from a high shelf,
The nurse observes a client prepare a meal in the Kitchen of a rehabilitation facility prior to discharge. the behaviors that indicate the client understands how to maintain balance safely is Locks knees while preparing food on the counter.
What is a rehabilitation facility ?After the acute medical illnesses have stabilized of patients , the patients with a variety of neurological, musculoskeletal, orthopedic, and other diseases are treated in rehabilitation facilities, also known as inpatient rehabilitation facilities. A rehabilitation facility is a business that offers programs and services to help people who have been hurt or are ill recover from their conditions.
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A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
A. total loss of function in a bone.
B. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
D. break in the continuity of the bone.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
General claims information??
In healthcare, a general claim is a request for payment for services rendered. It typically includes information such as the date of service, the provider of the service, and the cost of the service.
Claims are typically submitted by healthcare providers, such as hospitals, doctors, and other medical professionals, to insurance companies, government programs, or other payers. The insurance company or payer will then review the claim to determine if it is eligible for payment and, if so, how much they will pay. Claims can be denied if they do not meet the criteria set by the insurance company or payer, if they are not properly coded, or if they are duplicates.
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escherichia coli o157:h7 is mainly associated with ground poultry. T/F
Answer:
false
Explanation:
How long does it take to become an anesthesiologist?
Answer:
12 to 14 years
Explanation:
which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum? which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum? pericardial sac stomach small intestine spleen lung
lung spleen pericardial sac stomach small intestine. pericardial sac. the following structures is located within the mediastinum.
What does intestine do to your body?It helps to further digest food coming from the stomach. It absorbs nutrients (vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, fats, proteins) and water from food so they can be used by the body. The small intestine is part of the digestive system.
What is intestine food called?chyme, a thick semifluid mass of partially digested food and digestive secretions that is formed in the stomach and intestine during digestion. In the stomach, digestive juices are formed by the gastric glands; these secretions include the enzyme pepsin, which breaks down proteins, and hydrochloric acid.
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CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: -is self-placed and brief. -involves hands-on practice. -is delivered by computer. -occurs every 24 months.
Answer:
Please mark brainliest
Involves hands-on practice
Explanation: