Because the glucose level of the infant or baby described is lower than the normal level, following are likely to be observed:
Depression of brain functionOverstimulation of brain functionExcessive sweating.What is normal glucose level for a newborn?Typically, the concentration of glucose in newborn babies' blood ranges from 2.5 mmol/l (45 mg/dl) to 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl).
The condition of glucose deficiency is called Hypoglycemia. This can be prevented by:
Feeding the infants as soon as they are delivered;Ensure that their glucose levels are monitored;For babies at risk, glucose testing should be done 30 minutes after the first meal; andSupplements at a young age for infants who have eating issues.What are the common causes of hypoglycemia in new born?PrematuritySmall for gestational ageMaternal hyperglycemia, and Perinatal asphyxia are risk factors that can predispose an infant to hypoglycemia.It is also important to note that:
Delay in meals.Inadequate glycogen storage and hyperinsulinemia, are the most frequent causes.Other symptoms are:
TachycardiaCyanosisConvulsions, and Apnea.Learn more about glucose level at;
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Cynthia is turning 65 on July 5. Her Medicare Part A and Part B will be effective on July 1. Using her Initial Election Period (IEP), when can she submit an application for a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan?
During her Initial Election Period, which runs from three months before (April) to three months after (September) her Medicare Part A and Part B effective dates, Cynthia may enrol in a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan.
During Cynthia's Initial Election Period (IEP), which begins three months before the month of her Medicare Part A and Part B effective date (in this case, April) and concludes three months after that effective date (in this case, September), she may apply for a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan.
Thus, her application for a Medicare Advantage or Prescription Drug plan may be submitted at any time between April and September.
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for patients post-acl reconstructive surgery, is rehabilitation with dry needling effective in comparison to standard rehabilitation in increasing rom
Knee's stability and functionality can typically be recovered with a successful ACL restoration and targeted physical therapy.
What about ACL surgery?Anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction involves replacing the knee's anterior cruciate ligament with tissue grafts through surgery in order to recover function after an injury. Before reconstructing the knee using an arthroscopic treatment, the torn ligament can be either removed from the knee or maintained.Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction surgery is performed to replace a torn ACL, a significant knee ligament. Sports with abrupt pauses and changes in direction, such soccer, football, basketball, and volleyball, are the ones where ACL injuries most frequently happen.Most ACL reconstruction surgeries are completed in under two hours.It will be informed by your doctor how long the procedure will take. The time required for the full surgical procedure might depend on a number of factors, including: the kind of graft you're getting: an allograft or an autograft.Learn more about ACL reconstructive here:
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what describes permission to contact guidelines?
If you are a current or future Medicare beneficiary, the Medicare Permission to Contact (PTC) regulation spells out exactly when and how you may contact them. It also specifies what items they have given you permission to contact them about. This is further explained below.
What is permission to contact guidelines?Generally, To advertise a United Healthcare Medicare Solutions product, such as a Medicare Advantage plan, a customer must provide United Healthcare permission to contact them, which is known as "permission to contact" (PTC) (MA),
In conclusion, If you are a current or future Medicare beneficiary, the Medicare Permission to Contact (PTC) regulation spells out exactly when and how you may contact them. It also specifies what items they have given you permission to contact them about.
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The nurse is preparing to discharge a client 4 days after colostomy placement. Which of the following findings are concerning and require further investigation
Following findings require further investigation:
1. Areas of excoriation are noted on the skin surrounding the stoma.
2. No bowel sounds are present and the client reports nausea.
3. The client states, "I will call home health to come empty the pouch."
What is colostomy placement?A colostomy is a procedure that makes a passageway through the abdomen for the colon, or large intestine. A colostomy can be either short-term or long-term. Usually, it follows bowel surgery or an injury. While many temporary colostomies carry the side of the colon up to an opening in the belly, the majority of permanent colostomies are "end colostomies."
The end of the colon may be turned under, like a cuff, after being brought through the abdominal wall during an end colostomy. A stoma, or opening, is created by stitching the colon's margins to the skin of the abdominal wall. Stool drains from the stoma into an abdomen-attached bag or pouch. An abdominal wall hole and a hole in the side of the colon are sewn together to provide a temporary "loop colostomy." By merely separating the colon from the abdominal wall and plugging the holes, the flow of stools through the colon can be restored more readily in the future.
What are the steps followed after colostomy?You will learn how to take care of your colostomy and the device or pouch that collects your stool while you are in the hospital.
You'll be shown how to clean your stoma by your nurse. Once you go home, you'll carefully perform this action each day using only warm water. Next, gently massage the area dry or let it air dry.
Learn how to take care of your colostomy throughout your hospital stay. You must always wear a thin, light drainable pouch if you have an upward or transverse colostomy.
Make sure to speak with an ostomy nurse or other specialist before returning home so they can help you test out the necessary equipment.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client 4 days after colostomy placement. Which of the following findings is concerning and requires further investigation? Select all that apply.
1. Areas of excoriation are noted on the skin surrounding the stoma.
2. No bowel sounds are present and the client reports nausea.
3. The client states, "I will call home health to come empty the pouch."
4. The client states, "There is a little gas in the colostomy bag."
5. The stoma is red, edematous, and smaller than the previous day.
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A nurse is completing a physical assessment on a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following physical manifestations may the nurse expect to find
The nurse may expect to find the client suffering from atrophy in the muscles.
What is atrophy?Atrophy is the weakening or decrease in size of a cell, an organ or a tissue due to lack of use.Initially the atrophied part is in normal condition but due to no use for a long time, it starts degenerating.Example: Atrophy in the muscles of an arm after it has been dislocated or broken and thus is not used for a long time.According to studies, after 3 to 5 weeks of being bedridden, there is a loss of almost half of the muscle strength.As the patient is suffering from osteoarthritis (degeneration of joints) and has trouble in moving painful joints, he is expected to have atrophied muscles in that area.Learn more about muscle atrophy here:
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When helping a patient deliver her baby in the field, you should coach her to push for ____ seconds, and rest for ____ seconds.
When helping a patient deliver her baby in the field, you should coach her to push for 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds.
How to take care of a mother during labor?Taking care of pregnant women in labor is a challenging task as the nurses have to work very fast without compromising the quality and accuracy of care.The different stages of labor are First Stage, Latent phase, Active phase, Transitional phase, Second Stage, Third Stage. These stages are marked with uterine contractions, cervical dilations and eventually birth.The patient begins to experience strong contractions around the delivery time. These contractions occur every 2-4 minutes.During this time, instruct the mother to push for 10 seconds and then relax for 10 seconds.This is an exhausting process for the mother.So it is usually encouraged to the mother to push and relax for 10 seconds each for 3 times after which a break is taken.Learn more about stages of labor here:
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Select the correct answer. Consider this equation. 2(x-2)-5=√x+3-1 Use the graph to find the approximate solutions to the equation.
From the graph, approximate solutions of the equations is, x = 3 and x = 6.
What is the solution of the equation?
The solution of an equation makes that equation true.
The equation of can be simplified thus:
2(x-2)-5=√x+3-1
2x -9 =√x+2
4 x²-37x + 79 = 0
The graphical solution of the equations is approximately x = 3 and x = 6
In conclusion, the solution of an equation make the equation true.
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You are handed a skull that is clearly that of an haplorhine (anthropoid). What feature of the dentition would identify this specimen as a catarrhine and not a platyrrhine?
The skull of haplorhine (anthropoid) can be distinguished if it is a catarrhine or platyrrhine due to the features of the nose.
The two suborders of the anthropoid-dominated infraorder Simiiformes are platyrrhines and catarrhines. The primary distinction between platyrrhines and catarrhines is the presence of flat-nosed primates, such as New World monkeys, in the former group, whereas hooked-nosed primates, such as Old World monkeys, apes, and humans, are included in the latter group.
Furthermore, the catarrhines nostrils point downward while the nostrils of platyrrhines are closer together and spaced farther apart. Their tail, number of premolar teeth, thumb, and ectotympanic bone are the main features that set them apart from one another.
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What program is available to support c-snp and d-snp members who may have unique health care needs?.
When a client has undergone a laryngectomy and there is evidence of wound breakdown, the nurse monitors the client very carefully because of the high risk for
Carotid artery hemorrhage.
It is caused when a portion of the artery wall weakens. Like a balloon, as the aneurysm expands, the artery wall grows progressively thinner, increasing the likelihood that the aneurysm will burst.
What is Carotid artery hemorrhage ?Rupture of the carotid arteries, which provide blood supply to the head and neck, results in massive haemorrhage leading to death within a matter of minutes in 33% of cases.
This condition is often caused by a neck injury. The injury may be due to a car accident. The survival rate of penetrating carotid injuries is very low due to active arterial bleedingLearn more about Carotid artery hemorrhage here:
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Which component of fitness deals with a ratio between body fat and muscle, as well as bone structure
The nurse asks a patient to smile, blow out his cheeks, raise his eyebrows, and close his eyes tightly. The nurse is assessing which cranial nerve
The nurse is assessing the facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII).
The anterior two-thirds of the tongue's stapedius muscle, facial expression muscles, and taste receptors are all supplied by the facial nerve. Asking the patient to use their facial muscles—such as raising their eyebrows, forcefully squeezing their eyes shut, smiling, and puffing up their cheeks—will help the doctor assess this nerve.
Facial muscle weakness can indicate either peripheral or central involvement depending on where it is located. A peripheral lesion or injury to the facial nucleus on the ipsilateral side, such as in Bell's palsy or a pontine infarct, are suggestive of a weakness with the entire right side of the face moving. A lesion above the facial nerve is suggested by a weakening in the lower part of the face with sparing of the forehead.
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a nurse is assesing a newborn who was born at 29 weeks of gestation. which of the following findings should nurse expect quizlt
Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat
Subcutaneous tissue also regulates body temperature by making sure your internal temperature isn't too high or too low.
What is Ineffective thermoregulation ?ineffective thermoregulation a nursing diagnosis accepted by the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association, defined as a state in which an individual's temperature fluctuates between hypothermia and hyperthermia.
Extremely low-birthweight infants have inefficient thermoregulation due to immaturity—and caregiver procedures such as umbilical line insertions, intubations, and chest x-rays can lead to heat loss as well.As a result, infants may exhibit cold body temperatures after birth and during their first 12 hours of lifeLearn more about Ineffective thermoregulation here:
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The nurse is assisting with the admission of a newborn to the nursery. The nurse notes what appears to be bruising on the left upper outer thigh of this dark-skinned newborn. Which documentation should the nurse provide
The nurse should provide the documentation of a mongolian spot.
what is a mongolian spot ?
A mongolian spot is bluish-black areas of discoloration on the back and buttocks or extremities of dark-skinned newborns.
They can be present at birth or develop within the first few weeks of life. These 'birth marks' can appear in all racial groups, they are most common in Asian and Native American infants.
what are birth marks ?
Birthmarks are abnormalities of the skin that are present when a baby is born. There are two types of birthmarks.
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Pulmonary disease, gallstones, bone and joint disorders, reduced physical agility, and hypertension are all health conditions that are tied to _______.
Pulmonary disease, gallstones, bone and joint disorders and hypertension are all health conditions that are tied to obesity.
What is Obesity?
This is a condition in which an individual is overweight and has excessive body fat.
This fat clogs the artery and increases the heart pressure thereby reduces blood flow to vital organs and resulting in pulmonary disease, bone and joint disorders etc.
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which position is suitable for administering intramuscular medications in the ventrogluteal muscle site
Supine or lateral position is suitable for administering intramuscular medications in the ventrogluteal muscle site
Intramuscular injections :
Intramuscular (IM) injections administered medications into the muscle fascia, which has a rigorous blood supply, allowing medications to be absorbed faster through muscle fibres than through the subcutaneous route.
The ventrogluteal, vastus lateralis, and deltoid site are intramuscular injection sites. The ventrogluteal IM site is recommended whenever possible and is suitable for greasy and irritant medicines, according to sufficient data.
In comparison to other locations, the ventrogluteal site has the most muscle thickness and is devoid of blood vessels and nerves. To enter deep muscle tissue, a longer needle with a larger gauge is needed. The needle is inserted at, or as close to, a 90-degree angle perpendicular to the patient's body as is reasonably possible.
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All of the following are AIDS- defining conditions EXCEPT: influenza Pneumocystis jiroveci invasive cancer of the uterine cervix Kaposi's sarcoma
All of the following are AIDS- defining conditions except influenza.
What are AIDS- defining diseases?There are various serious diseases which are associated with HIV infection and threaten the life of an organism. These are termed as AIDS- defining diseases.When a person contracts any of these diseases, he/she gets diagnosed with AIDS which is an advanced infection stage.Opportunistic Infections (OIs) are those diseases that begin to occur more rapidly once the immune system is weakened due to AIDS.Many of the OIs are AIDS defining conditions. Some of these get diagnosed in the early stages of infection.Some of the examples of AIDS-defining diseases are Candidiasis, Bacterial infections, Kaposi sarcoma, cervical cancer (invasive), Pneumocystis jirovecii (pneumonia), Toxoplasmosis of brain, HIV related encephalopathy, etc.Learn more about AIDS here:
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A nurse is assessing a client who has insomnia. Which of the following questions is the highest priority for the nurse to ask the client
The question which should be asked if the individual is if the individual feels tired after waking up.
What is Insomnia?This is referred to a condition in which an individual finds it very difficult to fall asleep.
Asking if the person feels tired will help prevent complication as a result of that by determining appropriate sleep patterns, diet etc for the patient.
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A nurse is monitoring a female client with an epidural block. Which complication would be the most important for the nurse to monitor in the client
Respiratory depression
Respiratory depression is a complication of epidural anesthesia and should be closely monitored in laboring clients. A failed block, accidental intrathecal block, and a postdural headache are all side effects of a spinal epidural block
What is Epidural anesthesia ?Epidural anesthesia is often used during labor and delivery, and surgery in the pelvis and legs. Epidural and spinal anesthesia are often used when:
The procedure or labor is too painful without any pain medicine. The procedure is in the belly, legs, or feetIf you choose to have an epidural, a physician anesthesiologist will insert a needle and a tiny tube, called a catheter, in the lower part of your back.Learn more about Epidural anesthesia here:
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A nurse is changing the dressing of a patient with a central venous access device who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. After cleansing the site with chlorhexidine, which action would the nurse do next
After chlorhexidine, she should put on sterile gloves and clean the dried blood using a sterile antimicrobial wipe in a circular motion beginning at the insertion site and working outward.
A patient receiving complete parenteral nourishment and equipped with a central venous access device is having his or her dressing changed by a nurse. The nurse should put on sterile gloves and clean the dried blood using a sterile antimicrobial wipe in a circular motion starting at the insertion site and working outward after cleaning the area with chlorhexidine.
Gingivitis is treated with chlorhexidine. It aids in reducing gum bleeding as well as gum swelling and inflammation (redness). The bacteria that develop in the film (plaque) that builds up on your teeth between brushings is what causes gingivitis.
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A nurse is teaching new parents the proper way to use an infant safety seat. Which of the following should indicate to the nurse a need for further teaching
A nurse is teaching new parents the proper way to use an infant safety seat. Rear-facing in the middle of the back seat should indicate to the nurse a need for further teaching.
As the ideal location for child car seats, the rear center seat is also advised. According to research published in Pediatrics, the center rear seat is 43 percent safer than the side rear seat for children aged 0 to 3 years old, all other factors being equal.
In any form of crash, the position in the center of the back will be the farthest from any contact.
Wherever feasible, it is better to keep a young baby on their back. Other baby seating equipment should not be used until the child is old enough to support their own head, and car seats should only be used to carry infants in vehicles.
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a client with burns develops a wound infrection. The nurse plans to teach the client that local wound infections
Topical antibiotics are used.
What are topical antibiotics used for?It is utilized to assist prevent or treat minor skin infections as well as treats minor wounds (such as cuts, scrapes, and burns). Minor skin infections and wounds typically heal without medical intervention, although in certain cases, applying an antibiotic directly to the wound site may hasten healing. These antibiotics function by reducing or preventing bacterial growth.
Working of topical antibiotics:The human body's largest organ, the skin, performs a number of vital tasks. Your skin acts as a barrier to stop harmful microorganisms from penetrating the interior of your body. Due to bacteria's ability to enter an open wound when the skin has been injured, as is the case with a cut or burn, the risk of infection is enhanced. The skin damage's immediate vicinity may then develop a local infection. In addition to difficulties, an untreated skin infection increases the risk of sepsis, an infection that enters the bloodstream.
Locally applied topical antibiotics are used to treat the diseased area so that germs won't develop or spread there.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
A client with burns develops a wound infection. The nurse plans to teach the client that local wound infections primarily are treated with what type of antibiotics?
1. Oral
2. Topical
3. Intravenous
4. Intramuscular
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Interstitial fluid (IF) is ________.
Group of answer choices
a)the fluid in the cytosol of the cells
b)none of the above
c)the fluid component of blood
d)the fluid between the cell membranes
43
Answer:
b)
Explanation:
Interstitial fluid is the body fluid between blood vessels and cells, containing nutrients from capillaries by diffusion and holding waste products discharged out by cells due to metabolism.
A client is sitting in a chair and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The most appropriate nursing response is to
Explanation:
Do not put anything in their mouth and turn them on the left side of the chair then clear anything around them that could hurt them and always stay calm
Hope this helps you
The most appropriate response of the nurse on a client having tonic-clonic seizure would be to carefully move the client to a flat surface and turn him on his side.
why should the nurse do this for tonic-clonic seizure ?
When giving care for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should assist the patient to a level, flat surface before placing him on his side to prevent aspiration and protect him from harm. By adopting these measures, you can reduce your chance of falling or running into nearby items even while opening up your airway. During the seizure, the client shouldn't be restrained.
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A nurse is assessing an infant who was born at 32 weeks gestation and is now 8 months old. Which of the following developmental ages should the nurse expect the infant to demonstrate
The infant will most likely present with developmental skills consistent with a 6-month-old infant.
Which milestone would the nurse expect an infant to accomplish by 8 months of age ?The infant will most likely present with developmental skills consistent with a 6-month-old infant.
By 8 months of age, the child's skill level will vary greatly and cannot be predicted. The infant can be expected to display developmental skills consistent with a 8-month-old infant.At this age the infant can play peek-a-boo. It is a typical behavior of an 8-month-old infant.Learn more about Developmental skills here:
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A friend in your PE class gets hit in the nose by a basketball. His nose begins to bleed. It is important to tell your friend to lean his head back and not to touch his nose to help stop the bleeding. A friend in your PE class gets hit in the nose by a basketball. His nose begins to bleed. It is important to tell your friend to lean his head back and not to touch his nose to help stop the bleeding. True False
The nurse is describing fetal circulation to new parents and how the circulation changes after birth. The nurse describes a structure that allows the pulmonary circulation to be bypassed, but that shortly after birth this structure should close. Which structure is the nurse describing
The structure the nurse is describing is the foramen ovale
What is Foramen Ovale?
The Patent Foramen Ovale (FOP) is a channel that allows communication between the right and left cavities of the heart, which is fundamental in the development of the baby during pregnancy. This channel usually closes after birth, and it may persist into adulthood in 20-30% of cases.
With this information, we can conclude that A patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a hole in the heart that didn't close the way it should after birth. The small flaplike opening is between the right and left upper chambers of the heart (atria).
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An individual wants to lose 13 pounds before getting married. When meal planning, the person should plan an overall reduction of 45,000 calories to achieve this goal
Before getting married, someone wants to shed 13 pounds. To reach this objective, the person should schedule their meals to save 45,000 calories overall.
There is no one optimal strategy to lose weight, but all weight-loss programs create a calorie deficit, which means you'll either consume fewer calories than you did previously, increase your calorie expenditure through activity, or do a combination of the two.
Since adherence is the primary factor in determining whether a weight-loss strategy is successful, it is preferable to think of a plan that fits your needs rather than one that has a certain macronutrient breakdown (for example, high protein or low fat). For instance, a weight-loss program like Jenny Craig that stresses pre-packaged meals and largely restricts these activities won't be the greatest fit if you frequently travel or eat out.
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An adult client consumed 20 g of protein and had a total nitrogen loss of 10 g. The client's nitrogen balance would most appropriately be described as:
An adult customer had a total nitrogen loss of 10 g after consuming 20 g of protein. It would be more accurate to say that the client's nitrogen balance is negative.
When nitrogen intake and outflow are equal, or when nitrogen balance is zero, nitrogen equilibrium is achieved. When nitrogen intake surpasses nitrogen production, the condition is known as a positive nitrogen balance or anabolic state. A negative nitrogen balance or catabolic condition develops when nitrogen excretion exceeds nitrogen intake. By deducting the total nitrogen output from the total nitrogen intake, nitrogen balance may be computed.
The formula N X 6.25 was used since the typical nitrogen (N) concentration of proteins was determined to be around 16 percent of the total protein weight.
Therefore, Nitrogen (N) intake from 20 grams of protein =20/6.25=3.2 grams
Nitrogen balance =(3.2-10)= -6.8 grams
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Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms resulting from a back injury
Answer: A muscle relaxant such as diazepam is occasionally prescribed for a few days if the back muscles become very tense and make the pain worse. Diazepam is one of a group of medicines called benzodiazepines which can be habit-forming and should be taken for as short a period of time as possible.
Explanation: