Please help with this question I have been stuck on it for so long

Step-by-step explanation:

use the above process and answer is $3.60

Answer:

We already know that Joslynn makes $8.25 per hour.

Equation:

123.75 divided by 8.25= worked hours

123.75 divided by 8.25 = 15 hours

So last week Joslynn worked 15 hours to make $123.75.

Answer:

1st answer was wrong

area of circle - quarter

Step-by-step

100pi- (100pi÷4)

100pi - 25pi

75pi

The actual length the ball can travel in one rotation of 230 degrees is approximately 24.06 feet.

[tex]2\pi^c = 360^\circ = \text{Full circumference}[/tex]

The superscript 'c' shows angle measured is in radians.

If radius of the circle is of r units, then:

[tex]1^c \: \rm covers \: \dfrac{circumference}{2\pi} = \dfrac{2\pi r}{2\pi} = r\\\\or\\\\\theta^c \: covers \:\:\: r \times \theta \: \rm \text{units of arc}[/tex]

We are given that;

The angle= 230 degrees

Radius of rope= 6ft

Now,

If the tether ball is tied to a rope with a radius of 6 ft and can rotate 230 degrees, then the length of the rope that the ball travels in one rotation can be found using the formula for the circumference of a circle, which is:

C = 2πr

where C is the circumference of the circle, r is the radius of the circle, and π is the mathematical constant pi (approximately equal to 3.14).

To find the length the ball can travel in one rotation of 230 degrees, we first need to convert 230 degrees to radians by multiplying it by π/180.

230 degrees * π/180 ≈ 4.01 radians

Now we can calculate the length of the rope that the ball travels in one rotation of 230 degrees using the formula:

L = rθ

where L is the length of the rope traveled by the ball, r is the radius of the circle (the length of the rope), and θ is the angle traveled in radians.

L = 6 ft * 4.01 radians

L = 24.06 ft

Therefore, by the given angle the answer will be approximately 24.06 feet.

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The diameter of wrapper is the line that passes through its circumference

The smallest diameter of wrapper that will fit the candy bar is 8 cm.

The diven parameter is:

AD = 4 cm

AD = DC

AC = AD + DC

Substitute AD = DC in AC = AD + DC

So, we have:

AC = AD + AD

AC = 2AD

Substitute 4 for AD

AC = 2 * 4

AC = 8

Hence, the smallest diameter of wrapper that will fit the candy bar is 8 cm.

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Answer:

B. 8cm

Hope this helps! :D

Step-by-step explanation:

10.

(07.02 MC)

This is a cross-sectional view of candy bar ABC. A candy company wants to create a cylindrical container for candy bar ABC so that it is circumscribed about the candy bar. If segment AD = 4 cm, what is the smallest diameter of wrapper that will fit the candy bar? (1 point)

Answer:

56x

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of it an a triangle and a rectangle. The area of the rectangle is obviously 13 x 4x, which is 52x

for triangle, the hypotenuse is C, Right hand side is B and the side that is in the shape is B.

Area of triangle = (bh) / 2

B = 13 - 9, so B = 4

A = 6x - 4x, so A = 2x

the area is 2x x 4, which is 8x.

8x / 2 = 4x

The area is 4x + 52x, so the final answer is 56x

The expression of [tex]\sqrt{[/tex](16a^4x^6) is an algebraic expression

The equivalent expression of [tex]\sqrt{[/tex](16a^4x^6) is 4a^2x^3

The expression is given as:

[tex]\sqrt{[/tex](16a^4x^6)

Expresss 16 as the square of 4

[tex]\sqrt{[/tex](16a^4x^6) = [tex]\sqrt{[/tex](4^2a^4x^6)

Evaluate the square root of each factor in the expression

[tex]\sqrt{[/tex](16a^4x^6) = 4a^2x^3

Hence, the equivalent expression of [tex]\sqrt{[/tex](16a^4x^6) is 4a^2x^3

Read more about equivalent expressions at:

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Answer:

22 tickets

Step-by-step explanation:

4/6 is 2/3
2/3 of 32 is 21 .3
Can't sell 0.3 of a ticket, so round up.
22 tickets

Answer:The quadratic model obtained using a quadratic regression solver with Coefficient rounded to the nearest hundredth is :y = - 15.57x² + 179.32x + 0.20height = yx = time                          Using the model obtained;The height, to the nearest foot, at a time, x = 6.4 seconds.y = - 15.57x² + 179.32x + 0.20y = - 15.57(6.4^2) + 179.32(6.4) + 0.20y = 510.1008y = 510

Step-by-step explanation:

The additive inverse of –2+ 8i will be 2 – 8i. The additive inverse of a digit is the digit that delivers zero when added to it.

The additive inverse of a number is the number that produces zero when added to it. A negative number's additive inverse is positive. The additive inverse of itself is zero.

From the definition;

[tex]\rm x= 2+ 8i \\\\ \rm x= 2+ 8i + 2-8i \\\\ \rm x= 0[/tex]

Option C gives zero on addition. That's why it is correct.

Hence the additive inverse of –2+ 8i will be 2 – 8i.

To learn more about the additive inverse refer to the link;

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Answer:

The answer is C:

2-8i

Step-by-step explanation:

Edge 2022 :-)

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

4x-7=13

Add 7 to each side

4x-7+7 = 13+7

4x=20

Divide each side by 4

4x/4 = 20/4

x = 5

Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\hookrightarrow 4x-7=13 \\\\\hookrightarrow 4x=13+7\\\\\hookrightarrow 4x=20\\\\\hookrightarrow x=20/4\\\\\hookrightarrow x=5[/tex]

Answer:

Each order of rings comes with 3 rings. There are 78 order to pack how many rings is there going to be?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

325.76

Step-by-step explanation:

72+104+149.76

Answer:

-5 ± √5² - 4 · 1 · 4

         2 · 1

Step-by-step explanation:

ax²+bx+c=0 (quadratic equation)

x= -b ± √b² - 4ac

           2a

a= 1

b= 5

c= 4

-5 ± √5² - 4 · 1 · 4

            2 · 1

Answer:

The x and y points are increasing by 1

Step-by-step explanation:

(x + 1, y + 1)

The x and y points are increasing by 1

(10, 20) => (10 + 1, 20 + 1) => (11, 21)

(11, 21) => (11 + 1, 21 + 1) => (12, 22)

(10, 20), (11, 21), (12, 22)

Hope this helps!

Answer:

‍♂️

Step-by-step explanation:

Sry dunno the answer

Can u just give brainliest pls?

Answer:

answer is 1 metre

Step-by-step explanation:

We can assume the width be 'x'

Now we would get the equation

(2x+10)(2x+14)=192

on solving we get x=1

Answer:

35 percent

Step-by-step explanation:

1050 / 3000 as a percent

1050 / 3000 = 105 / 300

Divide both sides by 3:

300 / 3 = 100

105 / 3 = 35

35 / 100 = 35 percent

34%

This is because when you divide 1,050 by 3,000 you get 0.34 then turn that into a percent then there you go

Answer:

a, 1/4

b, 75%

Step-by-step explanation:

a, total mins meant to be played = 80mins

mins being played = 20mins

fraction of the match being played = 20 /80 = 1/4

b, percentage of the match left to be played

= 80 - 20 = 60

then we find the fraction of the match meant to be played

60 / 80 = 3 /4

then we multiply by 100 to get the percentage

3/4 × 100 = 75 %

if this helped pls give brainliest

Answer:

y = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it's the second option

[tex]y=1[/tex]

Answer:

1. Find the circumference, then multiply that by 120 turns.

Formula for circumference;

C = 2πr

But, we need to find the radius which is 1/2(half) of the diameter, so,

D/2 = R

D = Diameter

R = Radius

20/2 = 10 is the radius.

Plug in values now:-

C = 2(3.14) x 10

C = 6.28 x 10

C = 62.8 is the circumference, now we multiply this by 120 to get the total amount of centimetres it'll go.

62.8(120)

= 7,536 cm it'll go.

2. Find the circumference, then multiply that by 750 turns/revolutions.

C = 2πr

Find radius,

D/2 = R

50/2 = 25 is the radius.

Plug in values now:-

C = 2(3.14) x 25

C = 6.28 x 25

C = 157 cm it'll go.

3. Same thing, find circumference then compare values.

Given that radius is 10,

Use the formula for circumference;

C = 2πr

Replace values:-

C = 2(3.14) x 10

C = 6.28 x 10

C = 62.8 cm is the circumference of the first circle.

Now the second circle, (use same formula)

C = 2πr

Find radius,

D/2 = R

10/2 = 5 is the radius.

Replace values:-

C = 2(3.14) x 5

C = 6.28 x 5

C = 31.4 cm is the circumference for the second circle.

Now subtract the second circle's circumference from the first:

62.8 - 31.4

= 31.4, 31.4 cm is how much greater the second circle is than the first.

4 - 5. Find circumference, (using circumference formula)

C = 2πr

Find radius,

D/2 = R

760/2 = 380

Replace values:-

C = 2(3.14) x 380

C = 6.28 x 380

C = 2,386.4 km is the distance he'll travel.

If he wants to travel around it with 2,000 km, he'll need to travel at least once.

The inputs of the function are -8, 2, 4, and 6.

The input is the number that we put into the given function to get the output function.

x  and y of the function are given below

X    –8      2     4    6

f(x)  –6    –3     1     5  

From the given table, the inputs are given as the set of x values.

outputs are given as the set of y values. here, x is the input value that gives the output f(x).

Since x represents the input values and y represents the output values.

So, inputs of the function are -8, 2, 4 and 6

Learn more about input function ;

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Answer:

$1.5 per water bottle.

Step-by-step explanation:

One energy bar is equal to $2.

$2 * 22 players is equal to $44.

$44 - $77 is equal to $33.

$33 ÷ 22 players is $1.5.

the reason I divided $33 by 22 players is because you need to know how many dollars did he pay for each bottle of water so you divide the amount of dollars by the amount of players to get the amount of dollars of each water bottle.

Answer:

1207

Step-by-step explanation:

Total number of customers last week: 92 + 5 + 25 = 122

Number of customers who paid cash: 92

Percent of customers who paid cash last week: 92/122 × 100% = 75.4%

Next week:

Total number of customers: 1600

Expected number of customers paying cash:

75.4% of 1600 = 0.754 × 1600 = 1207

well, its difference is 187 - 110 = 77.

now, if we take 110 as the 100%, what is 77 off of it in percentage?

[tex]\begin{array}{ccll} amount&\%\\ \cline{1-2} 110 & 100\\ 77& x \end{array} \implies \cfrac{110}{77}=\cfrac{100}{x}\implies \cfrac{10}{7}=\cfrac{100}{x} \\\\\\ 10x=700\implies x=\cfrac{700}{10}\implies x=70[/tex]

Answer: There wasn't chemistry in them?

XD I dunno ._.       >w<

Broker q’s commission with a charge of $32.50 will be $11.50 less than broker p’s commission of 4.4%

A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower.

Par value of bond = $1,000

Commission on this by broker p= 4.4% = 1000*(4.4)/100= $44

So, the total price spent to purchase this bond = $1044

Par value of bond = $1,000

Commission on this by broker q= $32.50

So, the total price spent to purchase this bond =1000+32.50 = $1032.50

Difference between both deals = 1044-1032.50 = $11.50

Therefore, broker q’s commission will be $11.50 less than broker p’s.

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Answer:

C. Broker Q's commission will be $13.56 less the Broker P's.

Step-by-step explanation:

I just took the test and got it right.