Kyle works at a donut​ factory, where a​ 10-oz cup of coffee costs 95¢​, a​ 14-oz cup costs​ $1.15, and a​ 20-oz cup costs​ $1.50. During one busy​ period, Kyle served 14 cups of​ coffee, using 204 ounces of​ coffee, while collecting a total of ​$16.70. How many cups of each size did Kyle​ fill?
Kyle filled ___ ​10-oz cup(s), ___ 14-oz cup(s), and ___ ​20-oz cup(s).

Answer:

[tex] \frac{8}{?100} \times 25000[/tex]

=2000

365×10=3650

2000×3650=7300000

[tex]~~~~~~ \textit{Compound Interest Earned Amount} \\\\ A=P\left(1+\frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt} \quad \begin{cases} A=\textit{accumulated amount}\\ P=\textit{original amount deposited}\dotfill &\$25000\\ r=rate\to 8\%\to \frac{8}{100}\dotfill &0.08\\ n= \begin{array}{llll} \textit{times it compounds per year}\\ \textit{annually, thus once} \end{array}\dotfill &1\\ t=years\dotfill &10 \end{cases} \\\\\\ A=25000\left(1+\frac{0.08}{1}\right)^{1\cdot 10}\implies A=25000(1.08)^{10}\implies A\approx 53973.12[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

there is your answer in attachment

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer as an improper fraction = 16/5

Answer as a mixed number = 3 & 1/5

Answer in decimal form = 3.2

All of those values represent the same thing, but written in a different way.

=============================================================

Explanation:

I'm assuming HM stands for Harmonic Mean in this case.

If so, then we apply the reciprocal operation to each value to get 1/2 and 1/8 (from 2 and 8 respectively).

Add up those fractions:

1/2 + 1/8 = 4/8 + 1/8 = 5/8

Now we'll divide n = 2 over that result. The n = 2 refers to the number of items in the original set.

n divide over (5/8) = 2*(8/5) = 16/5 which is the answer as an improper fraction

-----------

To convert to a mixed number, we can do the following:

16/5 = (15+1)/5

16/5 = 15/5 + 1/5

16/5 = 3 + 1/5

16/5 = 3 & 1/5

Or if you need the answer in decimal form, then using a calculator would get you 16/5 = 3.2

Answer:

1.d. None of these measures  (do not exist interpreted as all of these exist)

2.The mean is increased from 346.8 to 361.32

Step-by-step explanation:

After calculations we find that all the measures of central tendency exist for this data. The mean , median and mode can be easily calculated .

The mean is 346.8

The mode is 281

The median is 316

Suppose that the measurement 806 (the largest measurement in the data set) were replaced by 1169.  The mean would be affected by the change.

The mean is 361.32

The mode is 281

The median is 316

The mean is increased from 346.8 to 361.32

Answer:

I think No B

if wrong correct me pls

have a great day

Answer:

75 hombres y 125 mujeres

Step-by-step explanation:

lo siento, yo no hablo español bien

Answer:

2 staff members

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment for missing details

Let

[tex]s \to staff\ member[/tex]

[tex]p \to participant[/tex]

[tex]e \to puzzle[/tex]

Required

Staff members for 18 participants

From the attachment, we have:

[tex]1s \to 8p[/tex] ---- 1 staff member to 8 participants

[tex]s \to 8p[/tex]

Multiply both sides by 1

[tex]s * 2 \to 8p * 2[/tex]

[tex]2s \to 16p[/tex]

This means that 2 staff members are required for 16 participants

Answer:

A. using a bar graph where one has a length of 86 units and one bar has a length of 81 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the quiz. The usual.

The optimal method to represent this data is with a "bar graph", with one bar 86 units long and the other 81 units long. which is the correct answer that would be an option (A).

A graph can be defined as a pictorial representation or a diagram that represents data or values.

The best way to represent this data is using a "bar graph" where one bar has a length of 86 units and one bar has a length of 81 units.

This is because a bar graph is used to compare the sizes of different data points, and the length of each bar represents the value of the data point.

In this case, the average quiz score is 86% and the average test score is 81%, so the length of the bar representing the quiz score would be longer than the length of the bar representing the test score.

Thus, Option A correctly describes the use of a bar graph to represent the data, so it is the correct answer.

Learn more about the graphs here:

brainly.com/question/16608196

#SPJ2

Answer: 1/125 or 0.008 (simplify 1.125 or should I do it?)

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, when there is a negative sign in the exponent you only move the negative exponents. Moving only negative exponents is recommended because using this rule, you multiply two exponents with the same base and add their powers.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

E(-1,6)  & F(-2,-10)

[tex]Slope = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\\\\\ \ \ \ = \frac{-10-6}{-2-[-1]}\\[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{-10-6}{-2+1}\\\\=\frac{-16}{-1}\\\\= 16[/tex]

Slope of the line perpendicular to this line = -1/m =  -1/16

Answer:

Step 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 3 should be:

−6m + 6m = −48 − 12n + 4n + 4

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  Step 3

Step-by-step explanation:

When the equations are added in step 3, the result should be ...

  -6m +6m = -48 -12n +4 +4n

In the work shown, the (+4) was left out in Step 3.

__

When the work is properly continued, it becomes ...

  Step 4:  0 = -44 -8n . . . . [step 3 is simplified]

  Step 5: n = -5.5 . . . . . . .  [step 4 is divided by -8 and 5.5 subtracted]

  Step 6: m = -3 . . . . . . . . . [n is substituted into Equation 1]

And the solution is (m, n) = (-3, -5.5).

Hello,

3x³a + 3x²a²

⇒ common factor : 3x²a

3x³a + 3x²a²

= 3x²a * x + 3x²a * a

= 3x²a(x + a)

:-)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this will help you more

Answer: x=52

Step-by-step explanation:

x+72=34+90

x+72=124

124-72=x

x=52

Answer:

80*

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle x + 80* add up to the vertical angle of 160*

So, 160* = x + 80*

80* = x

Answer:

80°

Step-by-step explanation:

160 is vertically opposite the x and 80, which means they have the same value.  This makes x+80=160.

This can be solved to x=80.

Answer:

The answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Starting from -3 in the Y values of option A. If you subtract three from each value, you will get the next value to the right.

Answer:

Someone already answered it but I won't let 50 points go to waste. !!!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]X= 19.6 cm3[/tex]

Therefore

X is not Accurate as it Falls outside of the Volume 15cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Sample size [tex]n=50[/tex]

Volume Range [tex]\triangle V= 914 cm^3 to 1492cm^3[/tex]

Exact standard deviation [tex]\sigma_E 186.4 cm^3​,[/tex]

Generally the equation for range rule of thumb is mathematically given by

Where

[tex]\triangle V=1492cm^3- 914 cm^3[/tex]

[tex]\triangle V=578cm^2[/tex]

Therefore

Estimate Standard deviation

[tex]\sigma_e=\frac{578}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\sigma_e=144.5cm^3[/tex]

Since

Exact standard deviation is 186.4 cm^3​

Comparing

[tex]X=\sigma_E- \sigma_e[/tex]

[tex]X= ( 164.1-144.5 ) cm3[/tex]

[tex]X= 19.6 cm3[/tex]

Therefore

X is not Accurate as is Falls outside of the Hallmark 15cm^3

Answer:

a) The probability that a randomly chosen specimen has an acceptable hardness is 0.7938.

b) If the acceptable range of hardness is (70-c, 70+c), then the value of c would 95% of all specimens have an acceptable hardness of 5.88.

c) Expected number of acceptable specimens among the ten is 7.938.

d) Binomial with n = 10 and p = P(X < 73.84)

[tex]p = P(Z <(73.84 - 70) / 3 ) = P(Z < 1.28) = 0.8997\\\\P(X <= 8) = 1 - P(X = 9) - P(X = 10)\\= 0.2650635[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

a )

[tex]P(67 < X< 75) = P( (67 - 70) / 3 < X < (75 - 70) / 3 )\\\\= P( - 1 < Z < 1.67) = 0.9525 - 0.1587 = 0.7938[/tex]

b )

[tex]c = 1.96 * 3 = 5.88[/tex]                    { Since Z = 1.96 for 95% CI refer table.}

c )

Expected number of acceptable specimens among the ten [tex]= 10 * P(67 < X< 75) \\\\= 10 * 0.7938 = 7.938[/tex]

d )

Binomial with n = 10 and p = P(X < 73.84)

[tex]p = P(Z <(73.84 - 70) / 3 ) = P(Z < 1.28) = 0.8997\\\\P(X <= 8) = 1 - P(X = 9) - P(X = 10)\\= 0.2650635[/tex]

Answer:

123 cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

He got 9*13 cookies, and had 6 already, so 9*13 + 6

9*13 = 117, plus 6 is 123

Answer:

The playable area has a width of 9 inches and a height of 6 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a number of ways you can get there.

1. Check the answers to see which have the right area and aspect ratio.

A: area = 24 in² — does not match 54 in²

B: area = 54 in², aspect ratio 6:9 = 2:3 — does not match 3:2 aspect ratio

C: area = 54 in², aspect ratio 9:6 = 3:2 — matches problem statement

D: area = 121.5 in² — does not match 54 in²

2. If the screen were 3:2 (inches), its area would be 6 in². The area of 54 in² is 9 times that value, so the actual screen dimensions are √9 = 3 times 3:2. That is, they are width:height = 9:6 inches — matches selection C.

3. You can write equations for width and height and solve.

w/h = 3/2

wh = 54

Substituting w=3/2·h into the second equation gives

... (3/2)h·h = 54

... h² = 36 . . . . . multiply by 2/3

... h = √36 = 6 . . . . square root, result in inches

Answer:

D. The playable area has a width of 9 inches and a height of 6 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

if the playable area is 54 and that such ratio of dimensions is 3:2

Then we are basically being asked to find the factor of ratios below that also multiply to get 54

54 = 9 x 6 and this is also a ratio of 3:2

As 3(3 + 2) = 54

and as width was asked first when ratio was given 3:2

The width therefore is 9 and the height is 6

So answer is D

A student uses the ratio of 4 oranges to 6 fluid ounces to find the number of oranges needed to make 24 fluid ounces of juice. The student writes the proportion:4/6=24/16

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

52

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is in photo above

Answer:

52

Step-by-step explanation:

step-by-step explanation is a c and b is 52

Answer:

there are 4 aces in the deck of 52 cards

so the probability to draw one ace is 4/52

if we draw an ace, there are 3 left in 51 cards.

so the next probability will be 3/51

we need to multiply probabilities to know how likely it is that this happens in a row.

for three in a row that's

[tex] \frac{4}{52} \times \frac{3}{51} \times \frac{2}{50} [/tex]

rewritten its:

[tex] \frac{4 \times 3 \times 2}{52 \times 51 \times 50} [/tex]

we'll see soon why this is easier to write.

we also have to account for the two cards that are no aces. it doesn't matter if the first two cards are no aces, the last two, or any rodney. just the ammount of non-aces is important.

there are 48 non-aces in the deck.

so the probability to draw one of them in the first step is 48/52.

wich each draw the number of cards left in the deck decreases by 1. and depending what we draw, that ammount also decreases.

we draw 5 cards, so we know what the denominators will be. the numerator will be the rest-ammounts of each event, like shown in the complicated fraction above.

let's write it most easily as this:

[tex] \frac{4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 48 \times 47}{52 \times 51 \times 50 \times 49 \times 48} [/tex]

this scenario looks like it only describes 3 aces, then two non-aces, but the order of multiplication isn't important. you could put the 48 and 47 to the left, same solution. so this expression represents all permutations of "3 aces when drawing 5 cards", including the two cards that are not aces.

that's why writing it as one convoluted fraction is indeed better and simpler than many fraction multiplied in row.

time to grap a calculator.

our probability for the event is

54144 possible valid outcomes out of

311875200 possible combinations.

luckily the calculator can reduce that to a simpler form of

[tex] \frac{47}{270725} [/tex]

(reduced with 2^6*3^, big number, but tried it out by hand stacking up prime factors until hittinga prime in the numerator)

written as a readable kind of number you probably know and like it's

0.0001736079047

in decimal form. now rounded as asked for:

0.00017

(as percentage: 0.017%)

hope the way how we got here is somewhat clear. feel free to ask any questions.

kind regards

Alex

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Lines with undefined slopes are perfectly vertical, of the form "x = ". A line with "the same x-intercept" as the given line that has an undefined slope will be the line that we want. I know that sounds confusing; we'll work through it then I'll explain it better. In order to find the x-intercep of the given line, solving it for y will make it a bit easier to "see". Therefore,

-y = -x + 1 and

y = x - 1. The x-intercept exists when y = 0, so setting y equal to 0 and solving for x:

0 = x - 1 and

1 = x. That's the x-intercept. It's also the line that we want that has an undefined slope, because "x = " lines are lines vertical lines and vertical lines have undefined slopes.

x = 1 is the line you want.

These problems are based on the Pythagorean Theorem. The Pythagorean Theorem is a^2 + b^2 = c^2. If the two sides are equal, the triangle is a right triangle. If c^2 is less, the triangle is acute. If c^2 is more, the triangle is obtuse.

Obtuse: c^2 > a^2 + b^2

Acute: c^2 < a^2 + b^2

Right: c^2 = a^2 + b^2

#7 --- Obtuse

21^2 ___ 8^2 + 15^2

441 ___ 64 + 225

441 > 289

#8 --- Right

20^2 ___ 12^2 + 16^2

400 ___ 144 + 256

400 = 400

#9 --- Acute

6^2 ___ 4^2 + 5^2

36 ___ 16 + 25

36 < 41

Hope this helps!

Answer:

1250 dollars lost :(

and gained 3750 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

one/ fourth of 5000 is 1250 just as 500000 is one fourth of 125000

Answer: d

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2020