Four clients enter the pediatric emergency department at the same time. Which client should the nurse see first

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Answer 1

The nurse must first see what is at greatest risk of life.

Which client should the nurse assess first?

The nurse should first assess the client showing symptoms of a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) (eg, unilateral edema , warmth, redness , tenderness on palpation).

Which patients should be seen first?

In triage, a nurse typically prioritizes each patient's condition into one of three general categories:

Immediately life threateningUrgent, but not necessarily immediately life threateningLess urgent.

With this information, we can conclude that The first phase of the nursing process is the assessment phase. In this phase, the nurse collects and organizes data related to the patient. Data includes information about the patient, family, caregivers, or the patient's community or environment as it is relevant to his health and well-being.

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Related Questions

the nurse is caring for a newborn who is 18 inches long weighs 4 pounds 14 ounces has a head circumference 13 inches and a chest circumference 10 inches

Answers

Hypoglycemia

Giving the infant a rapid-acting source of glucose, such as a mixture of glucose/water or formula as an early feeding if the infant is able to take by mouth, is the urgent treatment for hypoglycemia.

What is Hypoglycemia ?

When the blood sugar (glucose) level is too low, hypoglycemia occurs. The primary fuel for the body and the brain is glucose. Low blood sugar in a newborn infant can occur for a variety of causes. It may result in issues including trembling, a blue tint to the skin, as well as difficulties breathing and eating.

Inadequate intake of food. The mother's and the baby's blood types are incompatible. Birth abnormalities, endocrine problems, and metabolic conditions are already present. inadequate oxygen intake during birth (birth asphyxia)

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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to ______ before beginning to clean and disinfect.

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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to 24 hours before beginning to clean and disinfect.

What is disinfection?

Disinfection is defined as the reduction of the presence of disease causing microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses to a less virulent amount.

When a patient that is affected by communicable disease is discharged, the area where the patient stayed must be disinfected.

It is recommended by the center for disease control (CDC) that a waiting period of up to 24 hours should be done to minimize potential exposure to respiratory droplets.

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efffects of curcumin on oxidative stress

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Curcumin is able to reduce oxidative stress by decreasing the phosphorylation level of stress-associated cellular kinases.

What is Curcumin?

Curcumin is a natural plant compound generated by the species Curcuma longa.

This compound (Curcumin) can reduce the oxidative stress of cells by activating signaling pathways that reduce the phosphorylation and activation of kinases.

In conclusion, Curcumin reduces oxidative stress by decreasing the phosphorylation of kinases.

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Symptoms of ________ deficiency include glossitis, dermatitis, cheilosis, eye disorders, sun sensitivity, and confusion.

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Answer:

riboflavin

Explanation:

What is not the priority of an emt at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

Answers

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) have various important roles excluding the establishment the perimeter control.

Protecting people and property while minimising any adverse effects on the environment are the responsibilities of trained awareness level responders who are "first on the scene" during the occurrence of hazardous material. Emergency medical service (EMS) protocols are the accepted operating procedures that paramedics and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) must adhere to when assessing, treating, transporting, and delivering patients to definitive care.

There are certain role of responders that needed to be taken care of during such incidents.

Responders should avoid driving or walking through any spilled or released substances, including smoke, fumes, and puddlesPrevent unneeded equipment infectionAvoid being seen when you approach a sceneAvoid interacting with people leaving hazardous locationsRescue attempts should not be made unless you are trained and have the necessary PPEReport to the command post any suspicious people, shipments, or containers

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_____________________ deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.

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More than 1,000 deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.

Pneumococcal disease alludes to any disease brought about by pneumococcal bacteria. These microorganisms can cause many kinds of diseases, including pneumonia, which is a contamination of the lungs. Pneumococcal microbes are one of the most widely recognized reasons for pneumonia.

Pneumococcal conjugate immunization is a pneumococcal immunization and forms antibodies used to safeguard infants, small kids, and grown-ups against sickness brought about by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumonia.

There are three pneumococcal form immunizations PCV13, PCV15, and PCV20. The various immunizations are suggested for various individuals in light of their age and clinical status. In general, the immunization is 60% to 70% successful in forestalling obtrusive illness brought about by serotypes in the antibody.

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All of the following are underwriting considerations for replacing health insurance coverage, EXCEPT:

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D. It is the applicant's responsibility to assure the replacing coverage is for the insured's best interest.

What is health insurance coverage?

Health insurance coverage is a type of insurance that covers the medical expenses of an insured person, such as surgical treatments, illness treatment, etc.

Underwriting considerations

The underwriting considerations for replacing health insurance coverage include the following;

it is performed when it is necessary to replace health insurance policies.the replacing coverage may cost more and have fewer benefits than the existing coverage.Sometimes the replacing policy may not be issued if it provides the similar benefits as already existing policy.

Thus, the option that is not underwriting considerations for replacing health insurance coverage is "D".

"It is the applicant's responsibility to assure the replacing coverage is for the insured's best interest."

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factors affecting diffusion?

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Answer:

Factors affecting the rate of diffusion are as follows: Concentration gradient Permeability of the membrane Temperature Pressure

Concentration gradient.

Permeability of the membrane.

Temperature.

Pressure.

When a person has a stroke, blood leaks into the brain tissue. Which type of neuroglia cells would make structural repairs to the damage?.

Answers

Astrocytes are the neuroglia cells that tend to the structural repair to the damage.

The cells that play a major role to support the neurons are the neuroglia. These cells are also termed glial cells. The primary functions of neuroglia involve providing oxygen and nutrients to the neurons, insulating one neuron from the next, to support them and remove pathogens.

Astrocytes are a type of glial cells that form the blood-brain barrier and maintain the chemical environment of the central nervous stem (CNS). Any form of CNS insult makes the astrocytes reactive and generates a morphological change as a part of the response. A type of such response is forming the glial scar, which obstructs the regeneration of axons.

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Dr order: Infuse 2750 mL of 0.45% Normal Saline at 150 mL/hr
Drop Factor: 15 gtt/mL
How many gtt/min will you regulate the IV?

Answers

Jdjdjd jdjdjd jsjsjsj jsjsjsj Hshshs hshshs nsjsjs jdjdjd

which client condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids destruction of the auditory nerve

Answers

The client's hearing condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids after the auditory nerve is destroyed.

What hearing condition?

Hearing loss is a condition that reduces the human being's ability to hear sounds, also influencing the development of language and making it difficult to establish communication.

With this information, we can conclude that Hearing acuity is linked to perception and hearing ability. People who hear well, without noise, without problems, have good acuity.

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Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and related lung diseases are all grouped under the broad term of:

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Emphysema, chronic bronchitis and related lung diseases are all grouped under Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

What is COPD?COPD refers to a group of diseases that block the airflow and cause breathing-related problems. It is a term for a range of lung diseases like emphysema and chronic bronchitis.These diseases progress gradually, making it harder to breathe over time.Main cause of COPD is smoking.Lung diseases cannot be reversed but can be managed by lifestyle changes.Chronic bronchitis irritates your bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from your lungs.Emphysema is the breakdown of the walls of the tiny air sacs (alveoli) at the end of the bronchial tubes, in the bottom of your lung.

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The nurse is caring for a client in labor at 37 weeks gestation and notes a baseline fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute. Which interventions should the nurse perform

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Provide the mother with oxygen

Fetal tachycardia, an abnormal foetal heart rate that can be found on the foetal monitor, is suggested by the heart rate in the description. Tachycardia could result from problems affecting the baby's heart or from conditions affecting the mother, such as fever or dehydration. To boost hydration and oxygenation for the mother and baby, the nurse should increase the IV pace and give the mother oxygen.

What is Fetal tachycardia ?

Having a heartbeat that is faster than 160–180 beats per minute is known as foetal tachycardia (bpm).

This quick pace may be intermittent or continuous, with a regular or irregular rhythm. Fewer than 1% of all pregnancies experience a prolonged foetal tachyarrhythmia.

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A nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on a client. Which finding would the nurse document as abnormal

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the abnormalities the nurse can document during the otoscopic examination are immobility of the tympanic membrane and middle ear effusion.

What is otoscopy?

Otoscopy can be defined as a clinical procedure used in the examination of the structures of the ear, particularly the external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, and even the  middle ear.

Clinicians carryout otoscopy during routine wellness physical exams and the evaluation of specific ear complaints

During  the otoscopic examination, the clinician utilizes an otoscope, also to see through or  to visualize the ear anatomy.

The abnormalities that can be documented include;

Immobility of the tympanic membrane moves in response to pressure. The detection of middle ear effusion

Thus, the abnormalities the nurse can document during the otoscopic examination are immobility of the tympanic membrane and middle ear effusion.

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What did a famous Harvard University public health study identify as a factor that doubles the risk of heart disease

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Harvard University public health study identify pessimism as a factor that doubles the risk of heart disease .

A pessimistic perspective on life may be harmful to heart health.

Over the course of ten years, the study followed 3,000 men and women between the ages of 52 and 76. Participants were polled prior to the study to gauge how well their outlooks matched up with optimistic and pessimistic personality qualities.

According to the study, males who were assessed to be the least pessimistic were four times as likely to acquire heart disease. The study's most pessimistic participants also had a greater than twofold increased risk of dying from coronary heart disease.

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The aim of community based participatory research is to achieve individual change that results in improved community health outcomes and health equity.

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The aim of CBPR is to increase knowledge and understanding of a given phenomenon and to integrate the knowledge gained with interventions for policy or social change benefiting the community members.

What is Community based participatory research ?

Community-Based Participatory Research (CBPR) is an approach in which researchers and community stakeholders form equitable partnerships to tackle issues related to community health improvement and knowledge production.

CBPR can be used to increase access to care by building relationships with community partners that can determine geographical areas of need.establish community priorities for health concerns and ultimately create a more efficient and streamlined healthcare delivery system.

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Flexibility exercises will increase flexibility but will not necessarily improve cardiovascular fitness is an example of the principle of specificity. Flexibility exercises will increase flexibility but will not necessarily improve cardiovascular fitness is an example of the principle of specificity. True False

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False, the given statement is not an example of the Principle of specificity.

The Athlete uses the principle of specificity to increase their performance, this principle states, that the training should increase the skills, actions, and performance to excel in any physical activity. The exercise you are doing will gain specifically the part of the body for which the exercise is done. For example,  if you are running or jogging to increase stamina this will in turn also increase your cardiovascular functioning.

Doing Flexibility exercise makes the body flexible also lowers the blood pressure and reduces the stiffness of the arteries for better blood flow to the heart and improves cardiovascular fitness.

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Which of these is generally not a good practice with respect to oral communications (that is, talking) in organizations like healthcare facilities

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Use of full names in public areas or on intercom/paging systems,

because there is no security issue with identifying persons in public areas and using full names helps avoid misidentification

What is Oral communications ?

Oral communication implies communication through mouth.

It's a verbal form of communication where you communicate your thoughts, present ideas and share information. Examples of oral communication are conversations with friends, family or colleagues, presentations and speeches.The speech of this communication must be sensible and applicable to the subject matter.

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To administer drugs safely and effectively to all patients, it is important for medical assistants to

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To administer drugs safely and effectively to all patients, it is important for medical assistants to know the techniques needed to administer drugs, know how to perform dosage calculations and know the routes of medication administration.

What about medical assistants?Medical assistants frequently record patients' vital signs and obtain medical histories. In hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare settings, medical assistants carry both clinical and administrative duties. Their responsibilities change according on the practice's location, specialty, and size.Medical assistants collaborate with doctors, typically in outpatient or ambulatory care settings like clinics and medical offices.The healthcare sector depends heavily on medical assistants, who offer services to patients and medical professionals alike. They can help with routine medical procedures including taking vital signs, giving drugs as prescribed by a doctor, or compiling a patient's medical history. They also assist with the administrative side of running medical clinics by handling paperwork, billing insurance, and arranging appointments.

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Michael was recently diagnosed with a tumor of the pituitary gland and underwent surgery to remove the entire mass. After surgery the nurse noted that michael was producing an extremely large volume of urine. What might be causing michael to do this?.

Answers

The removal of Michael's tumour may have rendered him incapable of producing antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" because the hormones it generates regulate so many distinct bodily processes. It detects the body's demands and sends messages to various organs and glands to control their activity and maintain a suitable environment. It secretes hormones into the bloodstream that act as messengers to transfer information from the pituitary gland to distant cells, so controlling their activity. For instance, the pituitary gland generates prolactin, which stimulates milk production in the breasts.

The pituitary gland also helps store and secrete two important hormones - Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.  Anti-diuretic hormone aids in blood pressure regulation by working on the kidneys and blood arteries. Its most significant function is to conserve fluid volume by decreasing the amount of water lost through urine.

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The nursing process is a systematic, problem-solving approach that provides the framework for nursing practice in the United States and Canada. Put the five steps of the nursing process in order. (Select all that apply)

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Assessment- Diagnosis-Planning-Implementation-Evaluation is the correct nursing process.

What is nursing process?Assessment: The assessment phase is the first step in the nursing process. The nurse gathers and arranges patient-related data at this stage. Diagnosis: One of the most crucial stages in the nursing process is this one. When making a diagnosis, which can be difficult at times, it must take into account all of the patient's external circumstances (environmental, socioeconomic, physiological, etc.).planning: The third step in the nursing process is planning. It gives nursing interventions guidance.Implementation: Nursing interventions are the steps a nurse takes to carry out their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities meant to increase the patient's comfort and health.Evaluation: The evaluation phase is the last step in the nursing process. It occurs after the interventions to determine whether the objectives were achieved. The nurse will decide how to assess the efficacy of the goals and interventions during the evaluation phase.

Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here, The complete question.

Question: The nursing process is a systematic, problem-solving approach that provides the framework for nursing practice in the United States and Canada. Put the five steps of the nursing process in order. (Select all that apply.)

a. Diagnosis

b. Implementation

c. Planning

d. Assessment

e. Evaluation

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for a patient with a new onset of Meniere disease, which meal choice indicates understanding of dietary modifications provides by the nurse to prevent attacks

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Low-salt (sodium) diet for Meniere's disease

Vertigo and hearing loss are two symptoms of the inner ear ailment
Meniere's disease. Meniere's illness typically only affects one ear.

Meniere's illness can strike at any age, but it typically manifests between the ages of 20 and 40. Although it's regarded as a chronic ailment, there are a number of therapies that can assist manage the symptoms and lessen the long-term effects on your life.
The initial line of treatment frequently entails dietary changes, such as limiting salt, caffeine, alcohol intake, and the use of numerous medicines.
Just draw attention to the fact that daily glucose intake is not mentioned in the current debate over which diet should be recommended for MD patients.


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Shingles is a medical condition that usually occurs years after chickenpox, even though no illness is present in the intervening period of time. This occurs because human herpes virus-3 (HHV-3) is capable of __________.

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Shingles is a medical condition that usually occurs years after chickenpox, even though no illness is present in the intervening period of time. This occurs because human herpes virus-3 (HHV-3) is capable of latent infection.

Herpesviruses are a class of viruses that may infect both humans and animals, and the human herpesvirus, often known as HHV, is a member of this virus family. There are around 130 different species of herpes virus, but only eight of these are known to cause infections in people. These are referred to collectively as the human herpesvirus, abbreviated as HHV. DNA viruses make up the herpes virus family. This denotes that DNA, and not RNA, serves as the herpesviruses' primary genetic material.

Many common diseases, such as chickenpox, mononucleosis, shingles, cold sores, and genital herpes, are caused by members of the herpes virus family that are found in humans. Infections brought on by the human herpes virus typically remain dormant, which means that the virus continues to exist in the host even after the primary infection has been cured and has the potential to become active again at a later time.

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To deconstruct a medical term always start with the:

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The suffix is added to deconstruct the medical term.

Medical professionals use medical terminologies to study components, medical techniques, processes, diseases, medicines, and parts of the body.   These medical terminologies are constructed by combining prefixes, root words, and suffixes.

The prefix is the starting of the term, which indicates the color, location, direction, etc.,The root word is the subject, which indicates the part of the body.The suffix is the end of the term, which indicates the disease, disorders, and condition.

For example Bradycardia,

Prefix- Brady ( abnormally slow)

root word- cardi ( heart)

suffix- ia (abnormal state)

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A condition of the lymphatic system evidenced by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels with accompanying red streaks visible in the skin is called ____.

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Lymphangitis is a disorder of the lymphatic system characterized by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels and associated red streaks visible on the skin.

One of the important parts of the human body that make up the immune system is the lymphatic system. It is made up of a network of ducts, cells, glands, and organs. The body has nodes, which are another name for glands. The body's ability to fight infections depends heavily on your lymphatic system. The lymph vessels transfer lymph fluid and lymphocytes, or white blood cells, to an infection site in order to combat the disease. The inflammation of lymphatic vessels is called lymphangitis.

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The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient admitted with suspected dehydration. What is the daily oral fluid maintenance requirement in milliliters for the patient weighing 45 lb

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The daily oral fluid maintenance requirement in milliliters for a patient weighing 45 lb is 1510mL.

What is oral fluid maintenance?Maintenance fluid is a water and electrolyte solution which aims to replace the excessive loss of water and electrolytes through skin and through urinary system.This therapy was given by Holliday and Segar.Maintenance fluids consist of water, glucose, potassium and sodium. This is especially given to those children who are NPO (Nothing by mouth).The rate at which maintenance fluid is given depends upon the patient’s size and weight.For children weighing >20kg, the daily maintenance fluid required is given by 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg for every kg over 20 (cannot exceed 2400 mL/day)For a child weighing 45 lb (20.5 kg), the daily fluid requirement is 1500+ (0.5* 20) = 1510 mL.

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The nurse asks a patient to smile, blow out his cheeks, raise his eyebrows, and close his eyes tightly. The nurse is assessing which cranial nerve

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The nurse is assessing the Seventh cranial nerve for the facial expressions and  movement  such as smiling, raising eyebrows, blowing out cheeks and closing eyes tightly.

The Seventh cranial nerve is responsible for the sensory and motor functions in which it transmits the signal from the pons of our brain stem to the different facial muscles for the respective movement and expressions as follows.

Frontalis muscle (raising eyebrows)Orbicularis oculi and zygomaticus major (Smiling)Buccinator (Blow out cheeks)The orbicularis oculi (closing eyes tightly)

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Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of __________________ and may need supplements of ________________and ______________

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Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of a decrease in appetite and may need supplements of vitamins and calcium.

Nutrition is important to live a healthy life. Eating healthy nutritious food gives proper growth and development to the body and brain. With aging the proper functioning of the body declines due to deficiency of nutrients. This decrease in nutrition in the old adult is due to less appetite. This results in diseases like weaker bones, in females osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, etc.   To meet all their nutrition old adults require intake of supplements having vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium for healthy bones.

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Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching

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The sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is​ called subcutaneous emphysema.

Subcutaneous emphysema

When air gets trapped under the skin, it's called subcutaneous emphysema. "Subcutaneous" refers to the area beneath the skin, whereas "emphysema" simply means "air." Emphysema, a lung condition that is frequently brought on by smoking, comes in two varieties. This variety is distinct from the other. Surgery, medical treatments, accidents, traumas, or infections can all lead to subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema can cause complications, but they are actually relatively uncommon and the prognosis is good. These complications, however, can be fatal. According to one study, subcutaneous emphysema patients typically spent 16 days in the hospital, regardless of their severity level.

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A woman in scrubs enters a mother's room while the nurse is completing an assessment. The woman states the doctor is in the nursery and has requested the infant be brought back for an examination. What will the nurse do

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The nurse will ask the woman to see her postnatal hospital identification badge.

If the birth took place in a facility, the mother and child should be postnatal examined before being released. 6 to 8 weeks after the birth of your child, you should have your postnatal check to ensure that you feel well and are healing appropriately.

Soon after birth, blood pressure should be checked. A detailed and holistic assessment of the mother and her new infant is possible only through postnatal care. It strives to make sure both mother and child are healthy and that the mother has the resources she needs to care for her newborn child, including assistance and knowledge.

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The industries most prone to corporate crisis include the fast food industry and auto-makers. True or False In a random sample of 85 automobile engine crankshaft bearings, 10 have a surface finish roughness that exceeds the specifications. Do these data present strong evidence that the proportion of crankshaft bearings exhibiting excess surface roughness exceeds 0. 10?a. State and test the appropriate hypothesis using =0. 5. b. If it is really the situation that p = 0. 15, how likely is itthat the test procedure in part (a) will reject the nullhypothesis?c. If p = 0. 15, how large would the sample size have to be for usto have a probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis of0. 9? What is gene flow?A. Selection for average traitsOB. Genes moving between two populationsOC. A mutation becoming more commonOD. When a population splits in twoANYHETwwwwww******** if a 50kg person is uniformly irradiated by as .10-z alpha radiation, what is the absorbed dosage in rad and the effective dosage in rem? rbe = 10 for alpha A drug is used to help prevent blood clots in certain patients. In clinical trials, among 4844 patients treated with the drug, 159 developed the adverse reaction of nausea. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the proportion of adverse reactions. a positive return on investment for higher education _____. During the past five years, KwonCo.'s stock earned annual returns of 7 percent, 13 percent, 19 percent, 8 percent, and 15 percent. Suppose the average inflation rate over this time period was 2.6 percent and the average T-bill rate was 3.1 percent. Based on this information, what was the average nominal risk premium? "Six-point movement was the stepping stone of the war of liberation the basis of which was Bengali nationalism. " - do you agree with this statement? Be sure to explain your opinion with evidence List at least five tables corresponding to the domain model classes above. Include the following information for each of the tables: primary key, foreign keys to other tables, and other attributes that you think is needed to characterize the class. Also include whether or not the table is in third normal form or not - and why. A 6.51-L sample of carbon monoxide is collected at 55C and 0.816 atm. What volume will the gas occupy at 1.05 atm and 25C? none of these 5.57L 2.30 L 4.60 L 7.61 L Fritz company uses an activity-based costing (abc) system. the controller identified the following activity-based pools: manufacturing, purchase ordering, and setups with cost drivers of machine hours, number of purchase orders and number of setups, respectively. fritz estimated the following costs: $500,000 manufacturing, $80,000 setups, and $60,000 purchase ordering using 50,000 machine hours, 4,000 setups, and 20,000 purchase orders. what are the three abc rates Do you think the Roman Catholic Church and the Eastern Orthodox Church will ever be reunited Fill in the table below with your results from Part C. Test reagent Equilibrium Direction Primary NIE AgNO NaNO3 NH4OH (NH4)2C204 Na3PO4 Would you expect any of the test reagents from Part C to change the equilibrium constant? Explain list and briefly describe the three basic theories used to describe the term structure of interest rates fine points p and q on parabola y = 1-x^2 so that the triangle abc formed is equilateral triangle Mercury is in the 80th position in the periodic table. How many protons does it have?The atomic number of krypton (Kr) is 36, and its mass number is 84. How many neutrons does it have? four out of every seven trucks on the road are followed by a car, while one out of every 5 cars is followed by a truck. what proportion of vehicles on the road are cars? a monopolist maximizes profits by producing at a price and output where? select one: p = ac. p = mc. mr = mc. ac is at a minimum. Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I, or the failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis. As a result, both homologous chromosomes or both sister chromatids migrate to the same pole of the cell. This produces daughter cells with an imbalance of chromosomes. If 18 pairs of sister chromatids segregate normally during meiosis II in cats (n=19) but we have nondisjunction of 1 pair, then at the end of meiosis II we will haveA. 3 cells with 20 chromosomes and 1 cell with 18B. 2 cells with 20 chromosomes and 2 cells with 18C. 2 cells with 19 chromosomes, 1 with 20, and 1 with 18D. 3 cells with 18 chromosomes and 1 cell with 20 use a double integral to find the area of the region. one loop of the rose r = 3 cos(3)