determine the order of the three loci y, ec, and w, and estimate the distances between them on the linkage map of the x chromosome.

Answers

Answer 1

The estimated distances between the loci y, ec, and w on the linkage map of the X chromosome are:

y-ec: 13 map unitsy-w: 20 map unitsec-w: 7 map units

In genetics, a linkage map is a map that represents the arrangement of genes on a chromosome. A linkage map is a linear representation of genes arranged in order according to their genetic distance from each other. The order of the three loci y, ec, and w on the linkage map of the X chromosome is: y-ec-w.

The distance between each locus can be determined by measuring the amount of recombination that occurs between them. Recombination occurs when genetic information is exchanged between homologous chromosomes during meiosis. The amount of recombination that occurs between two loci is proportional to the distance between them on the linkage map.

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TRUE OR FALSE an example of an adaptation to exercise would be the increase in the rate of breathing during exercise.

Answers

True. An adaptation to exercise refers to the changes that occur in the body in response to regular exercise or physical activity.

One of the most important adaptations to exercise is an increase in cardiorespiratory fitness, which can be achieved through regular aerobic exercise.

One example of an adaptation to exercise is the increase in the rate of breathing during exercise. During exercise, the muscles require more oxygen to produce energy, and the body responds by increasing the rate and depth of breathing to bring in more oxygen and remove carbon dioxide.

This adaptation allows the body to better meet the increased oxygen demands of exercising muscles and helps to improve endurance and performance. Other adaptations to exercise may include changes in muscle size, strength, and endurance, as well as improvements in flexibility, balance, and coordination.

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Regarding penalties for research misconduct which of the following is CORRECT:

A. Research institutions may penalize researchers found to have committed research misconduct.

B. The Office of Research Integrity (ORI) may impose penalties of its own on researchers or institutions.

C. Researcher's employment termination is one possible penalty.

D. Supervision of future research activities may be imposed to the

researcher as a penalty.

E. All of the above.

Answers

Answer:

Regarding penalties for research misconduct which of the following is CORRECT:

A. Research institutions may penalize researchers found to have committed research misconduct.

B. The Office of Research Integrity (ORI) may impose penalties of its own on researchers or institutions.

C. Researcher's employment termination is one possible penalty.

D. Supervision of future research activities may be imposed to the

researcher as a penalty.

E. All of the above.

Explanation:

E. All of the above are correct. Research institutions may impose penalties on researchers found to have committed research misconduct, and the Office of Research Integrity (ORI) may also impose its own penalties on researchers or institutions. Penalties for research misconduct can include employment termination, supervision of future research activities, and other sanctions deemed appropriate by the institution or ORI. The specific penalties imposed may vary depending on the nature and severity of the misconduct.

transfer of a pathogen from one host to another via an inanimate object is an example of _____ transmission.

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The transfer of a pathogen from one host to another via an inanimate object is an example of indirect transmission.

Indirect transmission occurs when a pathogen is transferred from an infected person or source to a susceptible host through an intermediary, such as contaminated objects, surfaces, or vectors.

There are two main types of indirect transmission: vehicle-borne transmission and vector-borne transmission. Vehicle-borne transmission occurs when a pathogen is transmitted through a contaminated object, such as a door handle or shared utensil. Vector-borne transmission occurs when a pathogen is transmitted through a living organism, such as a mosquito or tick.

Indirect transmission can be prevented by implementing infection control measures such as hand hygiene, surface disinfection, and vector control measures.

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identify a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells from the following list. identify a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells from the following list. it is easier to obtain embryonic stem cells. embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated. the use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells. adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.

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Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated whereas adult stem cells are partially differentiated.

Embryonic stem cells are found in early stage embryos and are undifferentiated, meaning that they have not yet developed into a specific type of cell.

On the other hand, adult stem cells are partially differentiated, meaning that they have already developed into a specific type of cell. It is also easier to obtain embryonic stem cells than adult stem cells as it does not require a surgical procedure.

However, the use of embryonic stem cells raises more ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells. Furthermore, adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture than embryonic stem cells.

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Needles have two parts, the _______________________ that attaches to the vacuum tube needle holder
or _______________________. The second part of the needle is the _______________________, which is
the part that penetrates the skin during a venipuncture. The sharp, angled end of the shaft is called the
_______________________.

Answers

Needles have two parts, the hub that attaches to the vacuum tube needle holder or syringe. The second part of the needle is the shaft, which is the part that penetrates the skin during a venipuncture. The sharp, angled end of the shaft is called the bevel.

How does a needle syringe work?

A needle syringe is a device used to inject medication or withdraw fluids from the body. The syringe consists of a barrel or cylinder and a plunger. The barrel is the cylindrical part that holds the medication, and the plunger is the long, thin rod that slides inside the barrel.

The needle is attached to the end of the barrel and is used to penetrate the skin or other tissue. When the plunger is pushed, it creates a vacuum inside the barrel, which causes the medication or fluid to be drawn up into the syringe.

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According to Maslow’s hierarchy, physiological, and security needs

Answers

Answer:

people need feel safe before they can focus on things  like love & belonging

Explanation:

looks like a triangle

it has 5 floors

got to look at it from bottom to up

bottom 5th floor : food , shelter , clothing

4th : safety & job

3rd : love & friendship

2nd : confidence, respect, achievement

top 1st : acceptance, meaning, purpose, inner potential

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The nurse is educating an adult client diagnosed with a nonproductive cough about the prescribed dextromethorphan. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification? "If I raise mucous, I will stop taking the drug and call my prescriber." "I will not eat or drink for 30 minutes after taking a dose." "I will dilute the drug syrup with an equal amount of water." "The drug should only be taken as directed on the package." "I will dilute the drug syrup with an equal amount of water."

Answers

In response to the student's question, the about Dextromethorphan statement that requires further clarification is "I will dilute the drug syrup with an equal amount of water."  

Educating the client diagnosed with a nonproductive cough about the prescribed dextromethorphan. It is important to take the medicine exactly as prescribed by the prescriber. The patient should not consume food or drink for 30 minutes after taking the drug. This would make sure that the medicine is fully absorbed by the body in order to take full effect.

If the cough is productive, do not use this medication because it stops the cough reflex from functioning properly. A client must avoid taking an overdose because it may cause significant side effects, so he must take the medication as prescribed. The client should also call the prescriber right away if he experiences any unusual side effects or symptoms, such as rash or confusion.

If a client fails to follow the instruction, it would not be effective to cure the cough or treat the underlying cause. In addition, it may have negative consequences on the individual's health, worsening the disease or the symptoms.

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What Is Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy?

Answers

Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy (VRET) is a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that uses virtual reality (VR) to help treat anxiety, phobias, and other mental health disorders. In VRET, a patient is placed in a virtual environment that replicates a real-life setting, such as a feared social situation, and is exposed to the situation in a safe and controlled manner. By experiencing the situation through VR, the patient can learn to confront the fears and modify their reactions in the future.

VRET is used to target a variety of psychological disorders, including post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), panic disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and phobias. During a VRET session, the patient is presented with a situation they fear, and they must use coping strategies to work through their fear and anxiety. The patient may also be presented with relaxing and calming scenarios to help manage their stress levels. During the session, the therapist may provide verbal and nonverbal feedback to the patient, depending on their level of comfort.

VRET can be extremely effective in helping individuals confront and manage their fears, phobias, and other mental health issues. By providing a safe and controlled environment for the patient to practice managing their reactions to the feared situation, VRET can provide the patient with the confidence and coping strategies they need to confront their fears in real-life.

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Which intervention will the nurse select to prevent mucositis?A. Administering antiemeticsB. Oral cryotherapyC. Limiting visitorsD. Avoiding sunlight

Answers

The nurse will select oral cryotherapy, to prevent mucositis. Option B is correct.

Mucositis is a common side effect of chemotherapy and radiation therapy, and it is characterized by inflammation and ulceration of the mucous membranes in the mouth and throat. This can cause pain, difficulty swallowing, and an increased risk of infection.

Oral cryotherapy, also known as cold therapy, involves cooling the oral cavity with ice chips or other cold substances before, during, and after chemotherapy or radiation treatment. This can help to reduce blood flow to the area, which can decrease inflammation and damage to the mucous membranes.

Administering antiemetics can help to prevent nausea and vomiting, which are also common side effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy, but it does not directly address the inflammation and ulceration associated with mucositis.

Limiting visitors and avoiding sunlight may be recommended for clients with weakened immune systems due to chemotherapy or radiation therapy, but these interventions are not directly related to preventing mucositis. Option B is correct.

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Which of the following is part of a reasonable treatment option for a 30-year-old man with acute epididymitis who presents without gastrointestinal upset and will be treated as an outpatient?
A. doxycycline
B. amoxicillin
C. metronidazole
D. clindamycin

Answers

A reasonable treatment option for a 30-year-old man with acute epididymitis who presents without gastrointestinal upset and will be treated as an outpatient would include doxycycline. So the correct option is A.

Epididymitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the epididymis, which is a long, coiled tube situated on the back of the testicle. Inflammation may result from a bacterial or viral infection, as well as from an injury or unknown causes. Acute and chronic epididymitis are the two main forms of this condition. Doxycycline is a reasonable treatment option for a 30-year-old man with acute epididymitis who presents without gastrointestinal upset and will be treated as an outpatient.

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accidental death and dismemberment insurance worth it

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Answer:

Accidents are the fourth leading cause of death in the U.S., after heart disease, cancer and Covid. In fact, they’re the No. 1 cause of death for adults ages 25 to 44, according to the Centers for Disease Control. So, it seems like it would make sense to have an insurance policy that would provide coverage for accidental deaths.

That’s why there is accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) insurance. But as with all life insurance products, it pays to understand what it really covers and if you need it.

Explanation:

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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
Identify the positions of the organs.
The shoulder blades are __
to the elbows. The elbows are __
compared to the hands, but not compared to the __.

[1] medial, lateral, or superficial
[2] proximal, distal, anterior, posterior
[3] fingers, wrists, shoulders

Answers

The shoulder blades are superior to the elbows. The elbow are proximal compared to the hands, but not compared to the fingers.

Anatomy With the palms of the hands and the face resting on the anterior body surfaces and the buttocks and shoulder blades resting on the posterior body surfaces. The nose is lateral to the ears, which are medial and superior to the shoulders. The spinal column (spine) is medial to the lungs, while the heart is anterior to both. Although distal to the shoulder, the elbow is proximal to the fingers. Superior to the thoracic cavity and ahead of the spinal cavity is the abdominopelvic cavity. While being known as the superior surface in quadrupedal animals, the dorsal surface is also known as the rear surface in humans.

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the condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by . the condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by . the inability to generate sufficient quantities of atp due to feedback regulation of synthesis the all-or-none law the inability of the muscle to contract even if it is being stimulated a total lack of atp in the body inadequate numbers of mitochondria in muscle cells

Answers

The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption.

Skeletal muscle fatigue is an inability to sustain or maintain muscle strength, often resulting in decreased muscle power and exercise intolerance. Skeletal muscle fatigue occurs when the muscle is exposed to repetitive stimulation for an extended period, accumulating metabolic waste products such as lactic acid and CO₂.

The role of ATP in Skeletal Muscle FatigueThe primary role of ATP in the skeletal muscle is to provide energy for muscular contraction. In skeletal muscle cells, ATP is generated by the breakdown of glucose through glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation. During muscle contractions, ATP is consumed and replaced by the above mechanism.

When ATP depletion occurs, muscles cannot contract effectively, resulting in muscle weakness and fatigue. Furthermore, inadequate levels of ATP lead to the accumulation of ADP, Pi, and H+, which inhibit key enzymes responsible for the ATP synthesis process. Hence, insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption is the best explanation for skeletal muscle fatigue.

Complete question:

The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by:

A) a total lack of ATP

B) the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis

C) the all-or-none law

D) inadequate numbers of mitochondria

E) insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption

So, the correct answer is E.

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suppose a researcher, ann, finds that there is a strong correlation between amount of deep talk and well-being. well being is measured on a scale that ranges from 1-50. suppose another researcher, sergio, recruits participants who only have well being scores that range from 45-50, thus restricting the range of the well being variable. it is probable that in sergio's participants, the correlation between deep talk and well-being...

Answers

The correlation between deep talk and well-being is likely to be higher in Sergio's participants compared to participant Ann.

Suppose a researcher named Ann discovered that the degree of deep conversation and well-being are highly linked. Well-being is measured on a scale of 1 to 50. Suppose another researcher named Sergio only recruits participants with well-being scores ranging from 45 to 50, reducing the range of the well-being factor. In Sergio's participants, the correlation between deep conversation and well-being is likely to be higher as a result.

There are four kinds of correlation: Positive correlation, Negative correlation, Perfect correlation, and Zero correlation. Correlation is described as being robust when it is unaffected by changes in the range or scale of measurement. Correlation is said to be weak when it is influenced by changes in the range or scale of measurement. It is likely that the correlation between deep talk and well-being is a strong one because Ann has found that the degree of deep conversation and well-being are highly linked, and Sergio has only recruited participants with well-being scores ranging from 45 to 50, which is a high score. Therefore, the correlation between deep talk and well-being is likely to be higher in Sergio's participants.

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which of the following are characteristics of longer-acting benzodiazepine drugs, such as restoril and doral?

Answers

they decrease memory

An immobile patient is susceptible to all of the following alterations EXCEPT: a) respiratory infections b) blood clotsc) an increased appetite d) bedsores.

Answers

c) an increased appetite.  Apart for an increased appetite, all of the following changes can occur in an immobile patient (option c). Patients who remain immobile are more likely to experience a variety of problems.

Such as blood clots, pressure ulcers, and bedsores. Muscle atrophy, slowed metabolism, and hormonal changes brought on by immobility can all have an impact on a patient's appetite. Yet, while it may happen in some individuals as a result of other variables like medicine, stress, or boredom, an increased appetite is not a direct result of immobility. c) a bigger appetite. Besides from an increased hunger, an immobile patient may experience any of the following changes: (option c). A multitude of issues are more likely to affect patients who don't move around.

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1.Dynamic constancy is a term used to describe homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic constancy?A. The pancreas releasing insulin when blood glucose levels are significantly elevatedB. Sweating or shivering as you move from inside air-conditioned stores to outside on a hot, humid dayC. Adjusting the depth and rate of breathing if blood pH levels changeD. Administering IV fluids to a person who presents to the emergency room with dehydration

Answers

Dynamic constancy is used to describe homeostasis. Option (D) "administering IV fluids to a person who presents to the emergency room with dehydration" is not an example of dynamic constancy.

Dynamic constancy refers to homeostasis, which is the maintenance of a stable internal environment, which is the body's equilibrium. Homeostasis is a process that helps to maintain a stable internal environment in response to external changes, and dynamic constancy is the term used to describe this process.

Examples of dynamic constancy are: sweating or shivering as a person moves from inside air-conditioned stores to outside on a hot, humid day; the pancreas releasing insulin when blood glucose levels are significantly elevated; and adjusting the depth and rate of breathing if blood pH levels change.

However, administering IV fluids to a person who presents to the emergency room with dehydration is not an example of dynamic constancy since this treatment is being done to re-establish homeostasis rather than to preserve it. Therefore, option (D) is correct.

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What characteristic of carbon makes it a good backbone for creating diverse and durable molecules?
a. Carbon is a large atom.
b. Carbon forms four covalent bonds.
c. Carbon forms hydrogen bonds.
d. All of these are true.

Answers

The right response is option B, "Carbon forms four covalent bonds.. The resultant molecules are stronger and more stable due to the carbon-carbon bonds.

Carbon's ability to establish four covalent connections provides it a strong foundation for building varied and robust compounds. This enables carbon to form extended chains or rings by joining with a wide range of other atoms, including itself. These structures may then be further altered with other functional groups, such oxygen, nitrogen, or sulphur, to produce a wide variety of distinct molecules with various characteristics. The molecules that form are stronger and more stable due to the carbon-carbon bonds. As a result, the answer given in option B, "Carbon creates four covalent bonds," is true.

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For each subject, indicate whether her TRH levels would be low, normal, or high. Please explain your decision. Discuss negative feedback control in your answer.a. Subject with primary hypothyroidism:
b. Subject with secondary hypothyroidism:
c. Subject with hyperthyroidism:

Answers

Here are the TRH levels for the following subjects:

a.Subject with primary hypothyroidism: highb. Subject with secondary hypothyroidism: lowc. Subject with hyperthyroidism: low

Subject with primary hypothyroidism is TRH levels will be high because primary hypothyroidism causes a decrease in T4 levels in the blood, leading to increased TSH and TRH levels.

Subject with secondary hypothyroidism is TRH levels will be low in secondary hypothyroidism because of the inability of the pituitary gland to produce sufficient amounts of TSH, which in turn prevents the production of TRH.

Subject with hyperthyroidism: TRH levels will be low in hyperthyroidism because of the negative feedback loop; high T4 levels in the blood lead to low TSH and TRH levels. Thus, when the thyroid gland is overactive, it secretes more thyroxine and lowers TSH levels, leading to a decrease in TRH levels.

Negative feedback mechanisms are biological regulatory mechanisms that decrease the amplitude of an output signal in reaction to a change in a controlled variable's input. Negative feedback is a regulatory system that adjusts the body's output to keep a controlled variable within a narrow range, such as body temperature or blood glucose concentration. Negative feedback loops aid in the maintenance of a stable internal environment by opposing changes in a variable's direction away from the homeostatic state.

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What causes adhesions after abdominal surgery?

Answers

Answer:

Adhesions happen when the body tries to repair it's self

patient is screened through their electronic health record (ehr) history so the patient won't be able to:

Answers

When a patient is screened through their electronic health record (EHR) history, they cannot "double-dip" and obtain the same services twice from the same provider.

An Electronic Health Record (EHR) is a computerized medical record that keeps track of a patient's health history. This electronic record keeps track of all patient data, including their past diagnoses, medications, allergies, treatment plans, and immunization records.

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While reviewing a client's chart, the nurse notices that the female client has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following statements about neuromuscular blocking agents is true for a client with this condition?
A. The client may be less sensitive to the effects of a neuromuscular blocking agent.
B. Succinylcholine shouldn't be used; pancuronium may be used in a lower dosage.
C. Pancuronium shouldn't be used; succinylcholine may be used in a lower dosage.
D. Pancuronium and succinylcholine both require cautious administration

Answers

Answer:

B. Succinylcholine shouldn't be used; pancuronium may be used in a lower dosage.

Explanation:

Pancuronium is a medication that can relax muscles and help with procedures like surgery or intubation

Succinylcholine should be avoided because it can cause prolonged paralysis in patients with myasthenia gravis

Succinylcholine is a medication that can be used to quickly relax muscles during medical procedures like surgery or intubation

Myasthenia gravis is a condition that makes it hard for people to control their muscles because their nerves and muscles don't communicate well, like how a phone call might be hard to hear or understand if there's a bad connection

The symptoms of myasthenia gravis can include muscle weakness, trouble swallowing, trouble talking, and trouble breathing, like how it might be hard to move or speak clearly if someone is really tired or sick.

Succinylcholine is a medication that can be used to relax muscles quickly during medical procedures, but it should be avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis because it can cause their muscles to stay weak for too long, like how a sticker that's too sticky can be hard to remove and might hurt when it's pulled off.

Pancuronium is a medication that can relax muscles and help with procedures like surgery or intubation

Using neuromuscular blocking agents like pancuronium should be used in lower dosage in patients with myasthenia gravis because it can make their muscle weakness and fatigue last longer, like how a battery running out of power can make a toy car move slower or stop altogether.

In patients with myasthenia gravis, the use of neuromuscular blocking agents like pancuronium can result in prolonged muscle weakness and fatigue, as the transmission of impulses at the neuromuscular junction is already compromised in these patients. Therefore, caution is required when administering these drugs to patients with myasthenia gravis.

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what is medication capable of inhibiting growth of or killing bacteria?

Answers

Answer:

Antibiotics

Explanation:

how long does it take for a fractured tibia to heal

Answers

Recovery from a tibia-fibula fracture typically takes about three to six months.

the pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons. T/F

Answers

The given statement "The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons" is false because the pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is not solely controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons; rather, it involves a complex interplay between various neural and muscular components.

During the pharyngeal-esophageal phase, several muscles in the pharynx, esophagus, and upper digestive tract must contract and relax in a coordinated manner to propel the food bolus down into the stomach. This process involves the activation of multiple brain regions, including the medulla oblongata, which contains the swallowing center, as well as the cerebral cortex and other subcortical structures.

Furthermore, the swallowing process can be modulated by sensory inputs from the mouth, throat, and stomach, as well as by cognitive and emotional factors such as attention, anxiety, and satiety. Thus, while the pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing does involve automatic reflexes that are mediated by the swallowing center, it is also subject to various voluntary and involuntary influences that can affect its timing, intensity, and effectiveness.

Overall, the pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is a complex and dynamic process that involves the interaction of multiple neural and muscular systems. While the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons plays an important role in coordinating this process, it is not the only factor that determines how food is moved through the digestive system.

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polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates and consist of long chains of glucose molecules. which of the following is a polysaccharide?

Answers

Starch is an example of a polysaccharide.

Polysaccharides are carbohydrate molecules that are made up of long chains of monosaccharide molecules. They are made up of many repeating monosaccharide units bonded together by glycosidic bonds. Glycogen, cellulose, and starch are the three most important natural polysaccharides.Therefore, it can be concluded that Starch is a polysaccharide.

Starch is a polysaccharide composed of glucose monomers that are stored by plants as a source of energy. Starch is a complex carbohydrate that is stored in a plant's energy storage cells. Amylose and amylopectin are two types of starch that differ in the way they are arranged.

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true/false. covid-19 exhibited a long list of possible signs and symptoms as scientists were learning about the disease. classify each item as a sign or a symptom.

Answers

True. COVID-19 exhibited a long list of possible signs and symptoms as scientists were learning about the disease. Below is a list of some of the signs and symptoms that were reported during the pandemic:

Fever (symptom)

Dry cough (symptom)

Fatigue (symptom)

Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing (symptom)

Muscle or body aches (symptom)

Headache (symptom)

New loss of taste or smell (symptom)

Sore throat (symptom)

Congestion or runny nose (symptom)

Nausea or vomiting (symptom)

Diarrhea (symptom)

Chest pain or pressure (sign)

Confusion or inability to arouse (sign)

It's important to note that this list is not exhaustive and that new signs and symptoms may emerge as more research is conducted on COVID-19.

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4. Why was RIA used to measure Thyroxine while IRMA was used to measure TSH? RIA measures the Thyroxine (T3) in the blood. IRMA is more sensitive, therefore it can measure the levels of TSH (T4) that was released and the function of the thyroid.

Answers

Answer:

RIA measures the Thyroxine (T3) in the blood. IRMA is more sensitive, therefore it can measure the levels of TSH (T4) that was released and the function of the thyroid.

Explanation:

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how to move prescriptions from one pharmacy to another?

Answers

By calling or going to the target pharmacy, we can transfer the prescription from one pharmacy to another.

We can ask for a Rx transfer by calling or going to the new pharmacy. All of the medicine names, dosages, and Rx numbers should be sent to the new pharmacy. We include the phone number for the pharmacy we now use. Our previous pharmacy will be contacted by the new pharmacy, who will handle the majority of the process.

We can have your prescription electronically delivered to the pharmacy of our choice when we order a prescription online. It's referred to as a nomination. After you choose a pharmacy, we won't have to pick up paper prescriptions from our Physician office.

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during which step of the research process will the researcher establish if the study design should be quantitative or qualitative

Answers

Answer:

The researcher should establish if the study design should be quantitative or qualitative during the step of the research process where the research question is formulated.

Explanation:

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Mrs. Perez's class donated 99 different products for the food drive. One-ninth of it was vegetables,2/3 pasta,and 2/9 was soup. How much of each product did they donate? 1. Why did Polonius always pay attention to Hamlet?2. Why did Hamlet suffer from an emotional struggle?3. Who was killed by Hamlet? why?4. How did Ophelia react after her father died? 5. What happened to Hamlet after he was accused of killing Polonius?6. What caused the conflict between Hamlet and Laertes?8. How did Hamlet return to Denmark?9. What did he see when he returned?10. In order to solve the conflict, what did Cladius and Laertes arrange?11. What were their plans in order to kill Hamlet at any cost?12. Who died at the end of the play? 13. Who was alive to tell the story? can someone please explain? Identify all the statements that are true regarding the main theory of primate social behavior.- Primate social behavior is influenced by evolution.- Genes of individuals who engage in behaviors favored by natural selection are passed from one generation to the next.- Social behaviors that enhance reproductive fitness are generally natural instincts rather than learned.- Behaviors that only enhance survival are favored by natural selection. Scientists believe that over 200 million years ago ________. A the continents were farther apart B the continents were underwater C there was only one active volcano on Earth D the continents were connected the following selected transactions apply to tiffany jewelers company for november and december year 1. november was the first month of operations. sales tax is collected at the time of sale but is not paid to the state sales tax agency until the following month. cash sales for november year 1 were $55,000, plus sales tax of 8 percent. tiffany jewelers company paid the november sales tax to the state agency on december 10, year 1. cash sales for december year 1 were $110,000, plus sales tax of 8 percent. required: use a horizontal financial statements model to show how each event affects the balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows. more specifically, record the amounts of the events into the model. if a star has very weak hydrogen lines and is blue, what does that most likely mean? what steps are hypothesized in the derivation of the land plant life cycle (alternation of generations) from the charophycean green algae life cycle? What type of message is ICMPv6? . A circular fence is being used to surround a dog house. How much fencing is needed to build the fence? What is the value of 2/2 exponent -3 Identify operation s-related tasks carried out by Hotel.match each to its area of the ten Critical Decisions. organizations frequently need to customize a vendor's enterprise resource planning (erp) software to integrate other business systems.True or false Read lines 2228 from Act IV, Scene 1 of the play:Paris. Come you to make confession to this father?Juliet. To answer that, I should confess to you.Paris. Do not deny to him that you love me.Juliet. I will confess to you that I love him.Paris. So will ye, I am sure, that you love me.Juliet. If I do so, it will be of more price,Being spoke behind your back, than to your face.Select two ways in which the dramatic irony of these lines contribute to the tension that is building in the play.ResponsesA,Paris is depending on enemies for guidance.b,Paris is depending on enemies for guidance.c,Paris is inevitably going to face harsh truths.d,Paris is inevitably going to face harsh truths.e.Juliet is actively trying to ruin Pariss life.f,Juliet is actively trying to ruin Pariss life.g,Paris is totally unaware of Juliets true feelings.h,Paris is totally unaware of Juliets true feelings.i,Juliet is acting anxiously out of the ordinary. Suppose that a phone originally sold for $800 loses 3/5 of its value each year after it is released. After 2 years, how much is the phone worth?A. $800B. $1333C. $128D. $288 a1. Give an example of a nonzero vector that has a component of zero.2. Explain why a vector cannot have a component greater than its own magnitude.3. If the vectors A and B are perpendicular, what is the component of A along the direction of B? What is the component of B along the direction of A? Evaluate the impact which the 16Days of Activism campaign has had on Gender Based Violence in South Africa (High order) when henry's little brother accidentally locked himself inside his mother's car, henry used his mother's car key to unlock the door. henry's action could best be described as a(n): respondent behavior. spontaneous recovery. operant behavior. unconditioned response. as a reader, you have to make judgments about whether information is accurate, reliable, and credible. if you read a fact that cannot be verified, you may be dealing with information. question 2 options: controversial disturbing old faulty A rain gutter is made of sheets of metal 9 inches wide. The gutters have a 3 inch base and two 3 inch sides, folded up at an angle of . What angle will maximize the cross sectional area of the rain gutter?