a patient is receiving acetazolamide in a sustained release form. the nurse would anticipate the onset of drug action in approximately which time frame?

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Answer 1

A patient receiving acetazolamide in a sustained-release form can expect the onset of drug action in approximately 2 to 4 hours. The sustained-release form allows for a gradual release of the medication, providing a longer-lasting therapeutic effect.

Acetazolamide is a medication commonly used to treat various conditions, including glaucoma, edema, and altitude sickness. Sustained-release formulations are designed to release the medication slowly over an extended period, resulting in a delayed onset of action compared to immediate-release formulations.

It is important to note that individual responses may vary, and the specific timing of onset should be confirmed with the prescribing healthcare provider or pharmacist.

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Related Questions

How long does drug-induced ""happiness"" usually last?

Answers

the duration of the drug ex :greens about 4 hrs

A nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination of a pregnant woman at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform before beginning the physical examination

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Ask the woman to void for a clean-catch urine specimen.

Before the physical examination, ask the woman to void to collect a clean urine sample that can be used for rapid dipstick testing or laboratory analysis of bacteria, protein, glucose, and ketone levels. Alternatively, these can be assessed right away using dipstick analysis. Additionally, an empty bladder makes the pelvic examination more pleasant and facilitates simpler identification of the pelvic organs by reducing bladder size. Before the physical examination, the woman is not required to undertake a breast self-examination, a perineal self-examination, or Kegel exercises.

Which two tests are generally performed on urine at a prenatal visit?

On your first prenatal visit, your urine sample will most likely be screened for bacteria that indicate a UTI. This is done through a laboratory urinalysis and a culture and sensitivity test.

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A charge nurse is delegating a task. The nurse understands which of the following represents effective delegation

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The nurse understands the following represents effective delegation

Delineating the desired outcomes of the delegation. Effective delegation means planning ahead when identifying tasks to be accomplished. Assess the situation, and clearly delineate the desired outcomes.Asking the nurse if they are capable of completing the delegated task.Monitoring how the delegated task is being accomplished.Delegation

Delegation is the giving of power to another person (often from a boss to a subordinate) to carry out particular tasks. One of the fundamental ideas of management leadership is the distribution and delegation of tasks. Managers must decide which tasks they should complete themselves and which ones they should assign to others to complete.

From a managerial perspective, delegation entails transferring project ownership to team members, providing them the chance to efficiently conclude the work output with little assistance. Micromanagement, in which a manager gives too much input, direction, and oversight of work that has been assigned, is the reverse of effective delegation. Decision-making authority is granted to a subordinate through delegation.

A charge nurse is delegating a task. The nurse understands which of the following represents effective delegation

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A 5 year old is diagnosed with tinea corporis following development of lesions on the nonhairy parts of the face, trunk, and limbs. What is a common source of this condition

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A common source of tinea corporis following the development of lesions on the nonhairy parts of the face, trunk, and limbs can be a kitten.

Tinea corporis: It can be described as a round rash on the body caused due to a fungal infection. It appeared circular with rashes on the boundary and clear skin in the middle, it is itchy and red.

It is spread by direct contact with an infected person or by using the bedding, towels, and clothing of the infected person. A warm, moist environment facilitates growth.

It can be commonly transmitted to young children from pets like dogs and cats and is also interpreted as a clinical sign of a depressed immune system.

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A nurse is performing a venipuncture on an older adult client whose veins are difficult to locate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take

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When doing venipuncture on an elderly client whose veins are hard to find, the nurse should touch the skin around the insertion site.

Location for Venipuncture:

The two veins most frequently utilized for venipuncture are -the cephalic and median cubital veins. Possible locations include the dorsum of the arm's basilic vein or the dorsal veins of the hands. The basilic vein, which is found on the pinkie side of the arm and is adjacent to the brachial arteries and median nerve, must only be utilized if there are no other more noticeable arm veins, due to its close closeness to both. Only in extreme cases can veins in the ankle and foot be used. Avoid touching the veins on the inside of the wrist. A few additional websites ought to be avoided as well.

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The nurse is caring for a client with seasonal affective disorder (SAD). Which type of therapy is considered a first-line treatment for this disorder

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According to the research, Light therapy is considered a first-line treatment for a client with seasonal affective disorder (SAD).

What is light therapy?

It is the application of sunlight for therapeutic and preventive purposes, it helps to increase body temperature (improving metabolic and trophic processes).

It is used as treatment for clients with SAD to regulate the circadian cycle and biological processes, such as melatonin secretion.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, Light therapy is considered a first-line treatment for a client with seasonal affective disorder (SAD).

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A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the priority for this client

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Adequate cellular nourisment

In people with diabetes, glucose do not enter inside the cells to be used for energy. This can be due to either low insulin levels or insulin resistance

What is Diabetes mellitus ?

Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).

Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose into the cell for energy.

So the outcome statement should include stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by providing the insulin supplement the client needs.

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The charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical telemetry unit. Which clients are appropriate to assign to the licensed practical nurse

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Client 2 days after aortic valve surgery who needs a urinary catheter reinserted due to inability to void is appropriate to assign to the licensed practical nurse.

Who is a Licensed practical nurse?

These are healthcare professionals who perform different activities to ease the burden of patients and make them more comfortable.

In this case, reinserting a urinary catheter due to inability to void will make the patients more comfortable in the hospital.

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Maria is 75 years old. She is experiencing severe loss of bone tissue. Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with Group of answer choices diabetes.

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Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with osteoporosis.

What is osteoporosis?

Osteoporosis is a bone disease that mainly affects old people (from beyond 75 years old).

Osteoporosis is characterized by a progressive bone strength loss that may be a serious problem if it is not treated properly.

In conclusion, Maria is diagnosed with osteoporosis.

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Your first patient has a musculoskeletal complaint. Using the chart of musculoskeletal medical word elements from your textbook, construct 10 medical terms that would reasonably be involved in a complaint dealing with the muscles and/or bones. Each term should include its meaning in parentheses. Then list 3 tests or procedures that would reasonably be involved in evaluating a patient like this.

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Musculoskeletal disorders (MSD) are injuries or disorders of the muscles, nerves, tendons, joints, cartilage, and spinal discs.

10 medical terms that would reasonably be involved in a complaint dealing with the muscles and/or bonesOste/o (Bone,Osteitis, osteoma, osteocyte)Chondr/o (Cartilage Chondritis, chondroma, chondrocyte)Arthr/o Joint (Arthritis, arthroplasty)Myel/o (Bone marrow Myeloma)Ten/o, tendin/o Tendon (binds muscle to bone) Tendonitis, tenorrhaphy)Ligament/o Ligament (binds bone to bone) Ligamentous injury)Burs/o Bursa, “bag”, (shock absorber between tendons and bones) BursitisMy/o, myos/o Muscle (Myoma, myositis)malacia Softening (Osteomalacia, chondromalacia)porosis, Porous (Osteoporosis)

What are 3 important processes when coming to a diagnosis?

Physical examinationgenerating a provisional and differential diagnosistesting (ordering, reviewing, and acting on test results) reaching a final diagnosis.

With this information, we can conclude that Musculoskeletal Disorders or MSDs are injuries and disorders that affect the human body's movement or musculoskeletal system

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A patient placed on Aspirin for their arthritis tells the nurse that her bowel movements have become "very dark, like tar". What is the nurse's best reponse to the patient?

Answers

Eat a low-fat, high-fiber diet. Be sure to get regular exercise. And again, take the medicines your doctor prescribes

What is Aspirin ?

Nonprescription aspirin is used to reduce fever and to relieve mild to moderate pain from headaches, menstrual periods, arthritis, toothaches, and muscle aches.

What is Arthritis ?

Arthritis is caused by inflammation of the joints. Osteoarthritis usually comes with age and most often affects the fingers, knees, and hips.

Sometimes osteoarthritis follows a joint injury. For example, you might have badly injured your knee when young and develop arthritis in your knee joint years later.

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Dan is a diabetic. He is sweating, shaking, and having problems concentrating. What is causing this condition and how can you help treat it

Answers

a complication of diabetes hypoglycemia. give him something sweet -that contains glucose

In the dental formula for the adult dog, “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.
true or false

Answers

It is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.

Interestingly, dogs are omnivorous animals, meaning that they feed both plants and animals.

The dental formula for Dog is:

2 x (3142 / 3143) = 42 teeth (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 4 molar) / (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 6 molar) = 42 teeth.

What is omnivorous animals?

Omnivorous animals are animals that feed on both plants and animals. Examples include: human being, dog, cat, lion, tiger, elephant etc.

So therefore, it is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.

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Which procedure involves reconstruction of the urethra to relieve pain when voiding that is caused by a urethral stricture

Answers

Answer: PERINEAL URETHROSTOMY

Explanation:

SURGICAL PROCEDURE

When educating a client that has been prescribed long-term corticosteroids, which of the following should the health care practitioner caution the client about

Answers

that his body also is producing cortisol and if he stops they may be lower than usual or even adrenal insufficiency . also depressed immune system

a nurse is reveiwing the medical record of a client who has a new presciriton for famotidine. the nurse should recnogize that which

Answers

Ketoconazole

Ketoconazole is an antifungal medicine. It's used to treat skin infections caused by a fungus (yeast). It can also prevent them coming back.

What is Famotidine ?

Famotidine is used to treat stomach ulcers (gastric and duodenal), erosive esophagitis (heartburn or acid indigestion), and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

GERD is a condition where the acid in the stomach washes back up into the esophagus.

This heartburn medication can cause restlessness, depression, insomnia, anxiety and muscle twitching. The acid-suppressing drug Pepcid can add to depression, anxiety and insomnia.

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A hockey player is elbowed in the mouth, and one of his front teeth is dislocated. he has no other ill effects. What can you do to provide the best chance of successfully reimplanted the tooth?

Answers

The action that need to be provided as the best chance of successfully replanted the tooth is option A: Rinse the tooth with saline solution, then place it in a tooth saver container.

How do you clean and save your teeth?

In all, a person can preserve a tooth and also kill any bacteria on it with the use of applying alcohol or a special disinfectant.

Note that as it is said to be clean, one can save the tooth in an airtight container.

In the case above, The action that need to be provided as the best chance of successfully replanted the tooth is option A: Rinse the tooth with saline solution, then place it in a tooth saver container.

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See full question below

A hockey player is elbowed in the mouth, and one of his front teeth is dislocated. He has no other ill effects. What can you do to provide the best chance of successfully reimplanting the tooth? a. Rinse the tooth with saline solution, then place it in a tooth saver container. b. Wrap the tooth in sterile gauze. C. Rinse the tooth with water, then put it into a container with milk. d. Place the tooth in a container of ice-cold water. e. Call for emergency medical assistance.

A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is treatment for.

Answers

A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for (B) hydrocephalus.

What is hydrocephalus?A buildup of fluid in the brain's deep cavities.The additional fluid exerts pressure on the brain and can harm it. It is particularly common in infants and the elderly.In babies, hydrocephalus is characterized by head enlargement. Headache, blurred vision, cognitive impairments, lack of coordination, and incontinence are common symptoms in adults and older children.A tube (shunt) is frequently placed surgically into a ventricle to drain excess fluid.Hydrocephalus is treated by a bypass or shunt procedure that redirects the cerebrospinal fluid.

As the description itself says, hydrocephalus is treated by a bypass or shunt procedure that redirects the cerebrospinal fluid.

Therefore, a bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for (B) hydrocephalus.

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Complete question:

A bypass or shunt operation that diverts the cerebrospinal fluid is the treatment for ______

A. meningitis.

B. hydrocephalus.

C. encephalitis.

D. cerebral palsy.

Upon assessing the newborn's respirations, which finding would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider

Answers

A respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and acrocyanosis.

What are some respiratory assessments that are normal in a newborn? The respiratory rate should be between 30 and 60 breaths per minute.Coughing and sneezing are normal in newborns.Apnea that lasts longer than 15 seconds but overall short period is normal findings in newborn.

What are some alarming respiratory assessments about a newborn?Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress.Acrocyanosis which is bluish coloration of skin due to decreased amount of oxygen delivered to the peripheral part indicates respiratory distress.Chest retractions- skins around the breastbone and ribs pulls while breathing.Grunting sound with each breath.

Finding above conditions would cause the nurse to notify the primary care provider.

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An example of an abbreviation is _____.
a. mri
b. alzheimer disease
c. trendelenburg position
d. cabg

Answers

Answer:

An example of an abbreviation is an MRI.

Explanation:

MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging

The structure of the ddntp pentose ring is most similar to that of the pentose ring of.

Answers

Answer:

Therefore, the ddNTP pentose ring is most similar to the pentose ring of DNA.

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?
A. Lateral and rollover.B. Frontal and rotational.C. Rear-end and rotational.D. Rotational and rollover.

Answers

D. Rotational and rollover motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts

Close to one-third of all fatalities involving motor vehicle occupants are caused by rollover crashes (ROCs). ROCs are underreported even though they represent a frequent and significant mechanism of damage.The primary cause of illness and mortality in the young population is motor vehicle collisions (MVCs). One of the deadliest types of MVCs are rollover collisions (ROCs). A crash is considered to have occurred when the vehicle rotated by less than 90 degrees around any longitudinal or lateral axis. Because most ROCs occur on highways, there are significant concerns about driving safety. Every year, ROCs involving 350,000 passengers in 220,000 light motor vehicles occur in the US. These crashes resulted in 9000 occupant deaths and 14,100 serious injuries, while 224,000 victims had mild to moderate injuries.

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The diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited. Group of answer choices True False

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The statement "diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited" is true.

Human beings are multicellular organisms that are heterotrophic in nature and thus, are not able to produce their own food. They depend on other organisms for their food. The diet of humans is diverse and flexible which includes various dishes (veg and non-veg). This diversity in the diet of humans includes only four limited organic molecules like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids. Therefore, even after the diversity in the diet human beings eat quite a limited food type.

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The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe burns to 50% of the body. The nurse is aware that fluid shifts during the first week of the acute phase of a burn injury cause massive cell destruction. What should the nurse report if it occurs immediately after burn injury

Answers

The nurse should report  Hyperkalemia if it occurs immediately after burn injury.

Hyperkalemia

Patients with electrical burns have traditionally been thought to develop hyperkalemia as a consequence. The breakdown of red blood cells, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, and the onset of renal failure are all contributing factors to hyperkalemia. In this study, the prevalence of hyperkalemia within the first 24 hours following electrical burn injury was examined, as well as any potential relationships between serum potassium concentration and cutaneous burn size (percent TBSA) and serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK) concentration.

First off, hyperkalemia is a rare occurrence in patients who are hospitalized to our burn center with electrical injury along with extensive skin and muscle injuries. Second, whether or not is present is unrelated to the degree of rhabdomyolysis or the size of the burn.

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You are receiving a telephone order from a health care provider. After receiving all the information, what is the most important next action to perform

Answers

To ensure patient safety during a verbal prescription or telephone order from a health care provider, be careful to write down the prescription, read it aloud, and get approval before giving any medication.

In order to enhance a patient's health, telehealth, telemedicine, and related words typically refer to the electronic transmission of medical information from one location to another. Technology of this nature is increasingly being used in creative ways to deliver healthcare. The use of technology like mobile phones also increasing the chances of errors while exchanging of prescription from the physician to the patient or the caretakers. This may leads to errors in patient treatment and recovery. To avoid such errors it is suggested to be more active during telephone order from a doctor. It is better to write the prescription and confirm the same from the physician.

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which type of allergic skin condition is associated with immunological irregularity asthma and allergic rhinitis

Answers

Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) is a type of allergic skin condition is associated with immunological irregularity asthma and allergic rhinitis.

Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema) :

Eczema is a persistent skin condition that typically starts in a child's early years and is frequently linked to asthma, allergic rhinitis, and food allergies.

Eczema can be brought on by specific foods, especially in young children. Children may also get flare-ups from skin staph infections. Other possible triggers include dust mites, animal dander, perspiration, and contact with irritants like wool or soaps.

The primary objective of treatment is to minimize the itching. Avoid picking or rubbing the rash. It is beneficial to apply lotions, ointments, and cold compresses. It's crucial to stay away from anything that makes your situation worse. If a certain food is shown to be the cause, eliminate it out of the diet.

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When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:

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When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she has gathered patient history information.

Who is an EMT?

An EMT is an acronym that stands for Emergency Medical Technician. They are individuals that are specially trained with skills that are needed for emergency health situations.

Pain is the way our body reacts to an abnormal internal or external stimuli.

Abdominal pain is a type of pain experience at the abdominal region of the body.

The EMT would needs to obtain an information from the patient, which is often call patient history information.

This would help the technician set up a treatment plan for this patient.

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The home health nurse visits a client with inflammatory bowel disease who recently underwent a total colectomy with ileostomy creation. Which statement by the client indicates that the client understands ileostomy care

Answers

The statement which indicates that the client understands ileostomy care is 'I cut the appliance opening slightly larger than my stoma'.

What is Ileostomy?

This is a medical procedure which involves diverting the small intestine through an opening in the abdomen.

This opening must be slightly larger which is not more than 1/8 inches so as to protect the peristomal skin and prevent infection.

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A nursing student is preparing to administer a parenteral medication. The nursing instructor asks the student which administration route places a drug directly into the circulation, requiring no absorption. Which method does the student relay to the instructor

Answers

Intravenous method does the student relay to the instructor.

For critically ill children, the intraosseous route is quick and safe because it involves non-collapsible vascular access - unlike the peripheral veins, which

           undergo vasoconstriction during clinical and traumatic situations, leading to shock that prevents puncture and maintenance of an appropriate route for treatment.

What is the medical term for IV?

(IN-truh-VEE-nus) Into or within a vein. Intravenous usually refers to a way of giving a drug or other substance through a needle or tube inserted into a vein. Also called IV.

Which must be included on the health care provider's order select all that apply?

A primary health care provider's order must include the client's name, the drug name, the dosage form and route, the dosage to be administered, and the frequency of administration.

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The ACSM recommends that adults take part in physical activity 20 to 60 minutes per day at 60 to 90 percent of maximal heart rate, seven days per week, to improve cardiorespiratory endurance. Group of answer choices True False

Answers

False

Suggested duration of cardiovascular activities per day, according to ACSM standard are as follows :

150 minute per week of moderate intensity aerobic activity, computed to approximately 21 minutes per day, or 75 minutes per week of vigorous aerobic activity or about 10-11 minutes per day.

ACSM however,  suggests that all heathy adults aged 18-65 years should participate in moderate intensity aerobic physical activity for a minimum of 30 minute on 5 days per week or vigorous aerobic intensity activity for a minimum of 20 minutes on 3 days per week.

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